Relationship broke up 10 years ago. I moved out and my Ex remained in property rent free for 6 years. Paid nothing towards mortgage. moved out of property 4 years ago and has now turned up wanting money for share of property. Can she do this. There are no children involved.
2007-09-28 13:21:20 · 15 answers · asked by P B 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Ex partner not on mortgage.
2007-09-28 13:28:17 · update #1
Live in England
2007-09-28 13:32:45 · update #2
No.If she didn't contribute towards the mortgage and everything is in your name your ok.No marraige,no kids don'tworry about it.
2007-09-28 13:28:25 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You did,nt mention the state you live in? This is important because all states divide assets differently. But Im gonna go out on a limb here and guess no, If you were not married I think you may be safe, did you and her ever sign any agreement stating that you two are common law partners? Also theirs a time limit in these types of cases so I think shes **** out of luck! Sounds like she,s grasping at straws in order to try to suck money out of you, dont give in and give her one penny!
2007-09-28 13:31:25 · answer #2 · answered by penelope 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This depends upon the laws of the state where you resided at the time. A lot also depends on the length of time that she lived with you, as a common law wife. The courts will have to decide what her rights are in this case.
2007-09-28 13:26:21 · answer #3 · answered by Beau R 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is her name on the title to the property or mortgage? If so then yes she has a claim to it. If not, them most likely no claim to it. Most states don't recognize common law anymore.
2007-09-28 13:25:01 · answer #4 · answered by Lola 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not on mortgage than they should not be able to claim anything. but i would seek the services of the best attorney i could find just so u can rest assured your property is safe and sound. common law marriage is not accepted here in the USA.
2007-09-28 14:30:33 · answer #5 · answered by jude 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was in my local paper last week that the rules of a married couple are not the same as a common law couple, It would be very expensive for them to take you to court and would be 99% NOT likely to recieve what they have not bought or paid for! hope this helps
2007-09-28 13:39:09 · answer #6 · answered by lisa w 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If he buys a house with you even as he remains married, his spouse is eligible for 1/2 of the proceeds of his percentage of the residing house. So if he owns 50%, she receives 50% of that. the perfect guess might want to be to stay one after the different till his divorce is very last to stay away from any messy circumstances. Or, you'll have him signal a employ to be a tenant/lodger on your present day resources so he does no longer have any economic criminal duty. and confirm he does no longer purchase something for the residing house - furnishings, television, or something else that she might want to declare
2016-10-20 03:53:46 · answer #7 · answered by mcgoon 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
she can try but she wont have a hope in hell getting a share of the property.She sounds like a money grabbing woman and she should have been grateful that you let her stay there rent free for all that time.all the best
2007-09-28 22:05:03 · answer #8 · answered by lou 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Lots of unknowns and variables. Go get free legal advice. Many solicitors will give you a free hours to discuss a problem.
2007-09-28 13:25:31 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Clearly depends largely on the state this took place. Consult a lawyer right away and learn your rights
2007-09-28 13:27:26 · answer #10 · answered by JOHN 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋