A non religous answer please I'm talking about in laws why is it wrong?
2007-09-28 13:04:20 · 9 answers · asked by Shy poet 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
The only legitimate reason is that the government wishes to promote baby making so that there are more taxpayers. Otherwise, there is no sensible reason apart from the Book of Leviticus why gay marriage should not be respected and celebrated as much as two straight people with a contract to be a family.
2007-09-29 09:32:07 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
One reason is that any two men (or women) can get "married" solely for tax benefits, and with a pre-nup and no combining of assets, this arrangement would be a great money saver. Of course, two problems with this argument are that that is no reason to ban gay marriage (in fact it begs the question of why single people pay disproportionately more taxes) and that people already abuse straight marriage to get around immigration laws.
Another reason, cited by some answers, is that marriage is traditionally between a man and a women. However, if we look at traditions, then divorce should be illegal or at least have the same taboo as it had decades ago, men would legally have all the power in a marriage, and people of different races were forbidden to marry. None of these are true anymore, so why should we continue to cite tradition as a reason?
2007-09-28 13:42:58 · answer #2 · answered by jellybeanchick 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Marriage has, for the most part been a religious ceremony.
There for, the government should keep out of the wedding business. That way, because of separation of state and church, there could be no argument. The decision would be in the hands of a religeous order.
2007-09-28 13:41:01 · answer #3 · answered by billy brite 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I personally believe that until we outlaw more than 1 divorce per person, we shouldn't outlaw gay unions. I do not believe churches that are against gay marriage should perform one, but I see no reason that churches that approve and civil unions should not be allowed.
I have heard that they should be outlawed because they can not produce children (so should couples confirm ahead of time they are both fertile)?
I have heard it is because gay men cheat on each other (like some straight men I know)
I have heard because it confuses children (so does divorce).
2007-09-28 13:17:30 · answer #4 · answered by halestrm 6 · 5⤊ 0⤋
It should be recognized. And there are states that have outlawed marriages between same-sex couples and even put discrimination in their constitutions.
I think the children issue is ridiculous, as there are plenty of heterosexual marriages in which no children are born, while there are gay couples who either adopt children or have them via insemination. There are same-sex couples who are faithful to each other and heterosexual couples who cheat on each other.
I especially think anyone who has been divorced more than once ought not to talk about the sanctity of marriage.
2007-09-28 13:36:44 · answer #5 · answered by VeggieTart -- Let's Go Caps! 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because being gay is probably wrong. I am not sure if it is actually wrong. I think it is. Normally, laws are made because we think the action is wrong.
2007-09-28 13:18:32 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
it should not
let them suffer in misery like 50% of the married popualtion
let hem find about no fault divorce laws
child support
alimony
community property
and 50% attachment of pension plans
2007-09-28 13:14:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 0⤋
Gay marriage is NOT outlawed. They are not recognized. There is a BIG difference.
2007-09-28 13:10:52 · answer #8 · answered by hexeliebe 6 · 1⤊ 3⤋
It shouldn't be. Plain and simple.
2007-09-28 13:18:21 · answer #9 · answered by LunasAngel 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋