Please if possible,explain.
2007-09-28 05:23:10 · 9 answers · asked by kemunkhimhun 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Other - Science
These three laws hold to a good approximation for macroscopic objects under everyday conditions. However, Newton's laws (combined with Universal Gravitation and Classical Electrodynamics) are inappropriate for use in certain circumstances, most notably at very small scales, very high speeds (in special relativity, the Lorentz factor must be included in the expression for momentum along with rest mass and velocity) or very strong gravitational fields. Therefore, the laws cannot be used to explain phenomena such as conduction of electricity in a semiconductor, optical properties of substances, errors in non-relativistically corrected GPS systems and superconductivity. Explanation of these phenomena requires more sophisticated physical theory, including General Relativity and Relativistic Quantum Mechanics.
2007-09-28 05:28:05 · answer #1 · answered by Ina 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
We have very good evidence that all of the known physical laws are equally valid in all of the observable universe. We have suspicions that they might have changed during the history of the universe, especially the speed of light and the value of the cosmological constant. Astronomers and cosmologists are forever doing physics calculations about phenomena at the extremes of the observable universe. They haven't found any inconsistencies that would suggest any geographic variation in the physical laws.
2007-09-29 01:00:51 · answer #2 · answered by Frank N 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
N.Laws are valid only in inerial frames.
and the whole universe is not an inertial frame....so, no.
2007-09-29 06:37:57 · answer #3 · answered by pooja_kindia 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
newtons gravitation law was proved wrong.but the gravitational constant and the law of motion are valid all over the universe
2007-09-28 13:23:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Newton did not create the universe.
And whatever anyone says, no really has 100% accurate knowledge of the entire universe.
2007-09-28 16:44:35 · answer #5 · answered by dhakkansingh007 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Newton thought so......
i apologize for the quip.....
Newton is the given...... everyone refers back to Newton. if you apply our gravitational constant (32.2 ft/sec2) for earth, it works..... if you try to apply OUR gravitational constant for places other than earth, it fails.....
Newton was smart..... correctly using his conclusions is good.... incorrectly using his conclusions can lead to really bad calculations.....
2007-10-02 01:01:03 · answer #6 · answered by rratherbeflying 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
they are applicable only in the inertial frames and if you want to consider any part as inertial frame you need to make thenecessary corrections in the mathematical expression so as to use them.
2007-09-29 17:42:16 · answer #7 · answered by confusion 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No not in the fourth dimension.
2007-09-29 02:12:08 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes obviously
2007-10-02 08:21:20 · answer #9 · answered by pragnesh panchamvedi 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋