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I first noticed the use of "is come" instead of "has come" from reading and watching the Lord of the Rings. (At least, I think it's some sort of substitute for "has come"). Here are some quotes from the trilogy that show this:

"The Dead awaken; for the hour is come for the oathbreakers;"
(The Passing of the Grey Company, Book Five).

"Now is the hour come, Riders of the Mark, sons of Eorl!"
(The Ride of the Rohirrim, Book Five).

"Lights went out in house and hamlet ... Ever there rose the same cry in the gathering night: 'The King of the Dead! The King of the Dead is come upon us!' "
(The Passing of the Grey Company)
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

Does "is come" mean "has come"? If so, I wonder why Tolkein wrote in this way!

Also, I noticed that this is strangely similar to the French Vandertramp verbs - with auxiliary verb être, "to be", instead of avoir, "to have", when used in the past tense.

Thanks a ton if you can explain!

2007-09-27 09:16:45 · 3 answers · asked by Paul 3 in Society & Culture Languages

3 answers

its old english of "has come"
You sing it in "joy to the world" (the lord is come)
http://grammar.quickanddirtytips.com/GrammarGirl/unaccusative-verbs.aspx

2007-09-27 09:21:57 · answer #1 · answered by Diouji 2 · 0 0

English used to use the French (Vandertramp, as you call it) rule for verbs of motion taking 'to be' as the auxilliary.

I noticed it first in the bit in Moria where Legolas says, "A Balrog is come!"

2007-09-27 09:51:18 · answer #2 · answered by Doc Occam 7 · 0 0

Though 'popular' English tends to evolve, the tongue itself remains the same. Those who love the language know it in their hearts and have no trouble with it. Here in the US, it is obvious that many have 'adopted' it by necessity and lost there native tongues as their generations persisted as immigrants.

But they will never be as us, nor will our language be more than a burden to them.

2007-09-27 09:27:19 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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