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I know the king james popular version was re-written from a previous version and I know the bible was translated at least once but i think more than that

2007-09-26 20:46:26 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

that must be the straightest questioned I asked in a long time and still some of you are gonna stay after sunday school is over... Isn't this issue important with not so many knowing the answer?

2007-09-26 20:54:10 · update #1

16 answers

Original language of Torah and Injeel suposed to be Hebrew and Aramaice, but you may not find copy of Holy Scriptures in these languages, instead translation from Greek and italian translations to other languages and so many versions are available.
Every tenth year or so, a new amondment comes from any organization in any version so it is hard to record history.

2007-09-26 20:56:27 · answer #1 · answered by Bhola 3 · 1 2

The Cricket gave the best answer so far.

"re-written" is not really an accurate word to use for anything except a paraphrased bible. The King James Version (KJV) *has* been re-written, but those versions are usually sect-specific (e.g. The Joseph Smith Translation).

The KJV *has* been *revised* (the Oxford Revision of 1769). This "revision" basically modernized the spelling and removed several known printer's errors (known by access to the original translation). Thus, no there was no *rewording* of the original translation, so this cannot qualify as a "rewriting".

The bible has been translated hundreds of times, into nearly every language spoken on earth.

However, nearly all modern translations are translated from original language manuscripts or majority texts. Thus, rewriting is again not present in such efforts - merely re-translating.

Jim, http://www.life-after-harry-potter.com

2007-09-27 16:32:37 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

IRON CLAD FACTS

God is giving us his word, it does not have to be the best in translation.

At year 2513, O. T. 1110 years, 39 books, many write, done 443 before Christ.

N.T. 50 to 100 years, 27 books, many write.

WHERE WAS THE BIBLE BEFORE KJV Bible 1611 Published and popular?

The bible is meant for the last days and the end time.

From then to now many translations are available, use one to help the other
in study, become familiar with just one for best learning and study and have several to write in as study bibles. Keep the other clean. The most important
thing is to learn the history of man from Adam down through all the generations of offsprings.
1Cor.15:22-28, 51-53;
As in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.

ALL MEANS ALL:

John 5:26-29; Acts 25:15; Dan.12:2; Isa.26:19; Eze.37:12-14; Psm.104:29,30;
Job 19:25,26; 34:14,15; [ Jesus Acts 2:27-35 ]; Rev.20:1-6,12,13;

Man is in a time frame that is headed toward salvation, the time frame can be known 1Thes.5:1-9,21; all but day and hour Matt.24:3,14,36-38 [ he only takes the world by surprise, as believers know all but day and hour and that is not even know by Jesus, or not by angels, but by God only ];

2007-09-26 21:11:24 · answer #3 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 0

How DARE you try to make me think before I even finish my first cup of coffee!

Well, the King James was actually translated, not from the older copies that were in Middle English, but from the oldest manuscripts of the original language they possessed at the time. This meant that they were translating from the copy of the Old Testament, which was in Hebrew and dated back to about the 10th century, and the oldest copy of the New Testament, which was in Koptic Greek and dated back to the 4th century.

Since that time, we've found numerous older portions; the oldest of the Old Testament date back to between the second century B.C. and the first century A.D. (Dead Sea Scrolls), and the oldest of the New Testament is a fragment of the Gospel of John, which dates back to about 125 A.D. (which is only about thirty years after it was written).

It's from these that a comparison was made to the oldest fragments we had possessed until that time, and the only differences were in the order of some words, and occasionally a letter.

The Bible has been translated into more languages than ANY other book, whether ancient or modern. The earliest translations into other languages actually attest to its accuracy. When they were translated into English or other languages, and then compared, they were nearly exact. As in other cases, the only difference was in the order of words, and occasionally a letter. But it never changed the meaning of the text itself.

I've read lots of books on the subject. My doubts on the accuracy of the transmission of the Bible actually lended credence to my doubts in the religion as a whole. Sometime, you should try to find out what the gap between the oldest copies available of other works of antiquity and when they were actually written (Socrates, Plato, Aristotle, Homer) as compared to the Bible. It's very interesting.

Oh, and it has NEVER, EVER been "rewritten."

2007-09-26 21:02:07 · answer #4 · answered by The_Cricket: Thinking Pink! 7 · 1 1

Countless times...

Up until 1455 when the Gutenburg bible was printed every copy of the bible was hand written leaving room for error in transcription... Making any copy made that was not word for word a copy of the original a new translation...

Translated into other languages at least 55 known language translations.. With several sublanguage translations...

2007-09-26 21:02:01 · answer #5 · answered by Diane (PFLAG) 7 · 1 1

Different models pop out now and again as language alterations. An predominant correction to the way in which you set it: the bible has no longer been "re written". It is translated into exclusive languages or up-to-date as language itself alterations. Substantively, it stays the identical.

2016-09-05 09:29:58 · answer #6 · answered by hektner 4 · 0 0

The original works were passed down orally by a select group of monks. This practice is still done in some religions, for example Taoism has branches that pass down the oral teachings of Lao Tzu still to this day. If you can find an oral-dictated manuscript versus the pre-written manuscript, you will see that the differences are quite large.

2007-09-26 20:51:14 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

its been translated many times but never rewritten
yes king James was a translation from the Latin but now all translations come from the Hebrew and Greek.

2007-09-26 20:50:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

does it matter ? as long as it is interpreted and not perfect and considered the inexorable word of a god it is a problem.
too much blind faith and not enough good sense will always be a formula for disaster

2007-09-26 20:54:19 · answer #9 · answered by dogpatch USA 7 · 1 0

Re written in early few hundred years and so many alterations and changes are still goining on, it hard to collect all.

2007-09-26 21:02:14 · answer #10 · answered by Creation 6 · 1 2

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