I see criticisms of Chritians as being illogical. I understand logic in a formal sense to be a set of arguments derivable from a set of formal axioms that are held to be true and, together with these axioms, form a self-consistent system of language and argument (my chimera of a definition).
In this sense, is the above statement axiomatic? Regardless of the truth of the Bible, it seems that Christians' (paraphrased and oft-denegrated) "God did it" and "It says so in the Bible" statements are truly self-consistent and therefore arguably logical.
I'm not a formal student of the philosophy of logic but I've dabbled a bit into its foundations and readings so if anyone can help me here, I'd appreciate it.
2007-09-26 11:05:34 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Sir Oliver: I didn't say I agreed with it... I'm just curious if it *is*.
2007-09-26 11:09:00 · update #1
I'm no student of philosophy either... If the statements you mention are illogical then perhaps your definition of logic should read 'proven to be true' rather than 'held to be true'.
In support of your definition however, it is possible to have 'false logic', as in "By that logic, blah blah blah..."
2007-09-26 11:14:29 · answer #1 · answered by Citizen Justin 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If "The Bible is the word of God" were adopted as axiomatic, then "God did it" and "It says so in the Bible" would be valid.
However, the problem arises with adopting the axiom. In formal systems, axioms are generally inductively well-verified.
For example, in geometry the axiom "Two points determine a line" can be verified through observation. Since no instances in which two points fail to distinctly determine a line have been observed, it seems legitimate to adopt the axiom.
The problem with accepting the Bible as axiomatic is the fact that it contradicts with so many other observations.
Although a formal system in which the Bible's truth was axiomatic would be deductively valid, its axiom schema would be only weakly supported inductively.
2007-09-26 18:13:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, these statements are axiomatic because they are generally accepted without evidence. That doesn't necessarily make them self-consistent, though. As a silly example, the axioms "The sky is blue" and "The sky is not blue", taken together, are not self-consistent.
I'm not stating that the particular axioms you've brought up are inconsistent with themselves, but they are arguably inconsistent with other popular axioms, such as Occam's Razor.
2007-09-26 18:14:02 · answer #3 · answered by Brent L 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think that's the bone of contention, Christians accept it as automatically axiomatic. Where as others see it just like any other source of information, it nneds to be verified and validated.
It is a circular agrument to say that we know the Bible is the word of god as it says it is the word of god. As a prysical writting recording historical events, locations, persons and peoples it does not qualify as a self evident truth, but it does present an opportunity to prove that it is an accurate account.
Given that there is little supporting evidence i.e. just locations and peoples/nations, it seems to be in sore need of evidence.
2007-09-26 18:19:23 · answer #4 · answered by Pirate AM™ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When you test the Bible in light of the original manuscripts, you find that there are very few errors in the context of the translations (in fact the later translations tend to be more accurate as more and more manuscript evidence presents itself), than there are for other ancient writings (The Illiad, etc). Also, when you look at the statements made in the Bible, and look at Historical evidence, it is spot-on. Why then, should people pick and choose what is truth, and what they think is fiction in the book? Well stated argument, sir!
2007-09-26 18:10:07 · answer #5 · answered by Joshua B 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
As a "student of logic", you should know that false assumptions will let you conclude anything. False axioms, as you can imagine, are even worse.
2007-09-26 18:11:35 · answer #6 · answered by Michael 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The first five books were given to Moses by God, or Moses was instructed by God to write them down.
Beyond that it is just accounts of men, some more inspired some less.
2007-09-26 18:10:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Logic = physical domain
Faith = spiritual domain
And never the twain shall meet
2007-09-26 18:09:31 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is moronic and idiotic, in a formal sense.
2007-09-26 18:07:53 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋