true or false?
2007-09-25 09:20:39 · 6 answers · asked by lily_evans 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
Absolutely true
2007-09-25 10:19:55 · answer #1 · answered by bob h 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well -- true in that a simple national majority is not -- false in that a sufficient majority necessary to meet the procedural requirements would be.
All that is required is enough of a majority in the states to elect a majority of legislators in 2/3 of the states to call a constitutional convention and in 3/4 of the states to approve the amendment.
So, by the math, that's a little more than 50% of 3/4 of the states -- which is much less than 50% of the total US population.
2007-09-25 16:32:01 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
false.
A majority vote of the congress or senate, plus president vote, or two thirds to override veto. That's why they are called representatives. You vote them in, to vote for you on issues. A petition with enough signatories can put a measure to vote on the house floor....the bill would need 2 or more representatives to sponsor it.(sign).
Majority doesn't always rule, contrary to popular belief. If that were true then there would be alot of minorities without any rights at all.
2007-09-25 16:28:13 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
True. Majority vote is mob rule. We don't have that here.
2007-09-26 00:23:17 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
true - I believe it has to be a two thirds majority
2007-09-25 16:23:05 · answer #5 · answered by Steve P 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that is true. it is not sufficient.
http://www.lexisnexis.com/constitution/amendments_howitsdone.asp
2007-09-25 16:30:26 · answer #6 · answered by duker918 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋