if a team is on 4th down and attempting a field goal, but is blocked and picked up and run by the other team, but they fumble and the orginal kicking team recovers, whose ball is it?
2007-09-23 17:53:02 · 9 answers · asked by jeffcobb71 3 in Sports ➔ Football (American)
The team that was originally kicking the field goal would have possesion. Since the defense officially had possesion while running, then fumbled, the original regains possesion and has a first down.
2007-09-23 17:57:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A block kickoff? I hope you mean a blocked Field Goal. If a FG is blocked, recovered the other team and run back, fumbled and then the other team recovers, the ball would belong to orginal kicking team, 1st down at the point they recovered the fumble.
2007-09-24 01:55:28 · answer #2 · answered by ndmagicman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it is picked up by defense (change of possesion) and then the defense fumbles it and the kicking team recovers it it is their ball with a first down at the spot they are brought down.
So yeah in your scenario the kicking team gets the ball with a first down.
If the kick was blocked but the defense never got possesion but say it was knocked around and the kicking team recovers. Then the defense takes over on downs at that spot unless the ball is recovered past the first down marker.
The whole key here is possesion. if 1 team fumbles and the other team gets it then at that point there is a change of possesion if they redover and have control of the ball. If they fumble it and then the other team gets it (change of possesion) then that team has a new set of downs. The change of possesion is what overrides the former down and distance. It is a new set of downs.
2007-09-24 01:00:36 · answer #3 · answered by Rudy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First and 10 for the team that originally kicked the ball, since the ball officially changed possesion twice.
2007-09-24 00:59:04 · answer #4 · answered by Bigfoot 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is a good questions. I've been watching football for many many years and I haven't seen that scenario happen. But I think since it would be 4th down, at the end of the play, UNLESS the ball crosses the first down mark, the ball would have to go to the defense. That makes sense to me. Very very good question.
2007-09-24 00:59:43 · answer #5 · answered by Jeffrey B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the team that kicked off to the other team ball
2007-09-27 16:44:50 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Kicking team..
2007-09-24 00:58:32 · answer #7 · answered by DrB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
original teams
2007-09-24 00:58:33 · answer #8 · answered by doggbyte400 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sounds exactly like what happened at the end of the Cleveland game yesterday. Talk about a pissed off city, and a really pissed off fan!!!!!
2007-09-24 08:27:49 · answer #9 · answered by dinny's engaged!! 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋