What does this mean?

Question

On February 10, 2004, the French Parliament voted 494 to 36 to approve a legislative bill which bans all conspicuous “religious” articles of faith from public schools. The bill passed France's national legislature and was signed into law by President Jacques Chirac on March 15, 2004. The law disproportionately affects those for whom the wearing of “religious” articles is considered an obligation, not a choice—an obligation that cannot change, whether the practitioners are in public or private spheres.

Does that mean that the French said they could NOT wear religious things or they HAD to? I have to write a paper. Please help me understand!

Answer 1

It says those whose religion requires that they article clothing or anything else, they can still wear them as their religion says to do at home or in public.

This applies only to people whose religion requires certain "methods" of dress and almost definitely wouldn't refer to the entire French population.

Answer 2

"bans all conspicuous religious articles of faith from public schools" -- meaning prohibits them from being worn.

The issue (disproportionate effect) is that some religions require certain items to be worn, while other religions allow (but do not require) items to be worn. Thus the law does not directly conflict with the religions that only allow items, but does directly conflict with the religions that require items to be worn.

One of the significant differences in a country that does not have Constitutional protections for the private expression of religious faith.

Answer 3

It says those whose religion requires that they wear the articles clothing or otherwise, will still be allowed to wear them, as their religion dictates at home or in public.

This applies only to people whose religion requires certain methods of dress and almost definitely would not refer to the entire French population.