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Hello,

I am still trying to understand the concept of derivatives conjoined with limits. I believe the answer is true (I'm more than likely wrong), but does anyone have an explanation for it on the basis whether it's true or false.

Thanks.

2007-09-23 09:33:01 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Also, an explanation for the converse of this statement.

2007-09-23 09:41:04 · update #1

3 answers

yes, it is true
read here:
http://planetmath.org/?op=getobj&from=objects&id=6154

for the converse, it is not true, counterxample
f(x)=|x|, the absolute value of x
it is continuos in 0 but not differentiable

2007-09-23 09:42:10 · answer #1 · answered by Theta40 7 · 0 0

if x is differentiable at point a then it must have an instantaneous rate of change at that point , in other words how can there be a slope if there is no point of which to get the slope of thus x must be continous at a TRUE

let me further explain

if there was no derivative at point a then you could have an equation like this y= x/(x-a) , where x= a would result in x/0 = nonexistant and thus not diferentiable

however if y is diferentiable at a the it is continous at a

2007-09-23 16:38:06 · answer #2 · answered by dragongml 3 · 0 0

Yes the answer is true; differentiability implies continuity (the converse isn't always true however).

2007-09-23 16:40:42 · answer #3 · answered by jsoos 3 · 0 0

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