i gave my bf money only on the grounds that we would get married and i said if we don't that he has to pay me back the money, we had a verbal agreement to this. but he wont pay me back now as we have broken up, can i take legal action for this?
2007-09-23 03:57:51 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
no i didn't pay him to marry me, he needed mney and he said he was going to marry me before the money issue, so i gave him the money but he agreed to give it back if we didn't get married
2007-09-23 04:08:01 · update #1
I understand what you are saying but much could hinge on the "If we break up" thing. That would implie to some that there was already doubt as to if you were going to get married and YOUR motives. This could cast doubt on what you are saying. Yes it is messed up but that is a possibility.
All in all though as it was verbal all he would have to say is "she gave it to me to help me with no conditions". We were getting married. You need proof.
Then there is another thing. It is kind of like when people fight over who owns the engagement ring. It depends on where it leans as to who primarily broke it off as it is a contract. Do you have a ring by the way? Anyway as the ring is a contract to marry if the woman breaks it off he gets it back. If the man does she keeps it. So who broke off your relationship? Just a consideration.
No ring and nothing but a verbal agreement? Sorry to say it but unless it is a whole lot of money, not small claims, you pretty much have no chance. But you can try otherwise. Maybe the threat of being served will shake him into paying. And maybe he will appear to be lying to the judge in small claims. Maybe his story won't jive.
2007-09-23 05:29:58 · answer #1 · answered by jackson 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, animal control in major cities such as Houston which has the funding and one of the largest horse removal squads in the US due to abuse and neglect, can legally remove an animal from the premises without a warrant in-hand when an animal has been injured to a sufficient degree and vet care is not immediately attained by the property or horse owner. That is the issue here (injury sustained regardless of cause, how bad was the injury, and what action within what timeframe was taken by the guardian of the horse at the time of the incident), not whether a natural event/accident occured or not. Your "friend" should have called the vet immediately and didn't even need to go get the horse to bring her inside, which is the part that confounds me, as someone who has been in horses at upper levels for almost all of her life and has been in the legal position of owning reputable horse properties.The vet can go in the field and sedate the horse with permission, then, tend to injuries. Why was this so difficult for your "friend" to grasp? People are confusing the issue here and taking this question very personally. My guess is most likely applying a situation from their own past experience that has its own set of unique details that are not the same as what your horse experienced. Larger cities with a good program in place have judges that actually uphold animal treatment laws at the tortious level in civil court; smaller, rural areas typically turn a blind eye to animals like horses because they are categorized as kin to swine and other livestock.
2016-05-21 07:51:15 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it was all verbal, he might just say it never happened or that you didn't have any agreements of that sort. It would be really difficult to prove in court.
I can't believe you would pay someone to marry you! No wonder he broke up with you.
2007-09-23 04:06:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Check into the laws about a promise to marry...I believe there is provision for even, a verbal agreement, for all parties to be responsible for this agreement.
2007-09-23 04:11:29 · answer #4 · answered by basport_2000 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are a lot of questions behind the answers as there are many variables. Depends on legistlation as to whether oral agreements are enforceable. Also, hindges on your ability to substanciate that the payment was even made to him. I have seen numberous occassions where the actual transfer of money was contested causing a dismissal of the case.
2007-09-23 04:37:47 · answer #5 · answered by Dimples_in_NJ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, you can sue in small claims court. No lawyer needed. Just ask the bailiff what is needed to file that suit. You can win. A verbal contract is a valid contract.
2007-09-23 04:07:20 · answer #6 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
About the only way you could win is if he told the truth in court, do you honestly think he would go before a judge and tell them that he agreed to pay back his now ex-girlfriend.
2007-09-23 04:09:19 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
sure can, in small claims court. A verbal contract is enforceable there. It costs to file, so make sure you add that to the total that you're suing for. And, btw - I'm really sorry this happened to you.
2007-09-23 04:07:14 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Websites like FindLaw, LawGuru are some of the free legal advice resources available. More information at http://www.uelp.org/freelegal.html
2007-09-24 03:02:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You would be wasting your time-- verbal agreements don't stand up in court. Cut your losses and learn from your mistake.
2007-09-23 04:04:11 · answer #10 · answered by a 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋