What do you think?
2007-09-22 09:05:24 · 17 answers · asked by peacelove&gap 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
No........
2007-09-22 09:09:37 · answer #1 · answered by Brian 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
SOme already have gotten their 40 acres and a mule. I don't know enough if all of them did. How did I know. Well some *@#$! complained to me that he would never vote for a Republican, because thesy stole some land from the white plantation and gave it to the blacks. I have a friend who's family recieved some land. Desert in Texas and swamp land in I think Mississippi. When they found oil in texas, they were swindled from their oil money adn some company tricked the other family member from signing away timber rights on the swamp. I think alot of people believe their are no compensation, because the family was often tricked of giving away their land and don't want to tell the embarrassing tail of how they were tricked. Of course, back in the 1800's it's common for the state to help people steal property.
2007-09-22 09:19:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No.
If we're going to keep walking backwards down the path of past transgressions, considering the fact that my father's people were from Ireland I will be looking towards England for some reparations and since my mother's people came from Germany I'll be expecting some cash from them as well for all of the crap they pulled during WWII!!!
It's ridiculous!
2007-09-22 09:09:58 · answer #3 · answered by Kelly B 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. They didn't do the work, So no money should be given to them. I'm Irish, Should I be given reparations for my family role in a Work House. I'm part german. I'm part native american. Should I be given reparations. Oh coarse not. No one deserves money that they personally didn't earn. Just my feeling on it
2007-09-22 09:14:23 · answer #4 · answered by The Mizz 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, they should not. It is not consistent with our legal system to hold the decedents of slave owners responsible for the sins of their forefathers.
No one alive today was ever a party to slavery or the use of slave labor in the United States.
2007-09-22 09:11:06 · answer #5 · answered by msi_cord 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No. Just as it is wrong for Jewish descendants of pre-WW2 Polish Jews to claim some lost property of their ancestors from Poland.
2007-09-22 09:12:16 · answer #6 · answered by Avner Eliyahu R 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
I would be all for it, if first they find out the names of the families of free blacks from the south who also owned slaves and asked for it from them as well, then they need to go to Africa and find the tribes who originally captured their relatives and sold them to the dutch traders for a hand full of beads, then,... need I go on?
2007-09-22 09:23:56 · answer #7 · answered by seismic_sailor 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No reparations without repatriation.
2007-09-22 09:58:45 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO.
Why should I pay for what others did??? I didn't have a slave.
Let them collect from the people that kept their ancestors.
And why do they call themselves African Americans?? If they were born in America shouldn't they be called American Africans??
2007-09-22 09:11:21 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely not unless it is a free one way trip back to their "Homeland"
2007-09-22 09:15:49 · answer #10 · answered by ♥ Mel 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I personally believe that should be on a "if you are in favor of it you pay it" basis.
2007-09-22 09:09:54 · answer #11 · answered by midnyteryder1961 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋