EBITDA = Earnings Before Interest, Taxes, Depreciation and Amortization
Listing down what we know and don't know, we have:
EBITDA 7,500,000
Interest (2,000,000)
D&A (?)
Sub-total (100%) ?
Tax (40%) (?)
Net income (60%) 1,800,000
Knowing that 60% of the sub-total = 1.8m, we now know that the sub-total = 100/60 x 1.8m = 3m and that tax = 40% x 3m = 1.2m. Knowing all this, it's quite easy to fill in the gap for D&A:
EBITDA 7,500,000
Interest (2,000,000)
D&A (2,500,000)
Sub-total (100%) 3,000,000
Tax (40%) (1,200,000)
Net income (60%) 1,800,000
So depn & amortization must be 2.5m
Coming to the cash flow problem, we list down what we know and don't know:
Cash flow from op'g activities ?
Cash flow used in investing activities (250,000)
Cash flow from financing activities 170,000
Net decrease in cash (30,000)*
Cash at beginning of yr 55,000
Cash at end of yr 25,000
Just using a calculator, we know that cash flow from op'g activities must = 50,000.
*We have cash at beginning and at end of yr, so the difference must be the decrease in cash for the year
2007-09-22 19:20:29
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answer #1
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answered by Sandy 7
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Perfect explanation and walkthrough of the calculation from the first post by Sandy! The answers are 100% correct.
2007-09-25 17:28:27
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answer #2
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answered by amuzdot5 2
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