Try to re-phrase and ask again, I'm confused about what you're asking!
I think I know what you mean, by having say 3 numbers the same on all the lines then 3 differing numbers?
If so, then it would only work if those numbers came up, and the chances of that is less likely to result in a win than if you were to pick 6 random numbers on all the lines. Although the win would be bigger, the unlikelyhood of them coming up outweighs this.
2007-09-21 11:24:36
·
answer #1
·
answered by Al 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
OK I think we've cracked it!
Let's say the 'winning' 3 Number line is
a,b,c,d,e,f . (like 3,6,11,23,29,45)
There are exactly 20 possible permutations (where order does not matter) of any 3 selections from 6 (6!/(6-3)!*(3!)
where 6!=6x5x4x3x2x1 etc
So if any one line contains 3 correct numbers (which 3 you do not know in advance), the other lines must contain each the other possible permutations.
The 'chosen' line is a,b,c,d,e,f
The other lines must contain resp
(a,b,c).. a,b,d..a,b,e..a,b,e
a,c,d..a,c,e..a,c,f
a,d,e...a,d,f
a,e,f.
b,c,d...b,c,e..b,c,f
b,d,e..b,d,f
b,e,f
c,d,e..c,d,f
c,e,f
and finally d,e,f! (in addition to any other 3 random numbers)
So chose a line a,b,c,d,e,f (any numbers between 1 and 49) and make sure (you need another 19 lines) that each of them contains (a different) one of the number letter triplets.
I think that this guarantees that if one line is correct at least one of the other nineteen will contain a winning three-up too. This is still not beating the odds!
Your probability of winning £20 is still only 20/55=36% for a £20 stake since the prob of one line yielding 3 is still 1/55.
2007-09-21 12:46:47
·
answer #2
·
answered by alienfiend1 3
·
1⤊
0⤋