What is the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis and what are its implications for our understanding of the relationship be?

Answer 1

I know the Whorfian hypothesis relates to how a person's thinking is directly related to which language they speak. For example, Swedish does not have a separate word for "please", and Swedes in Sweden frequently have difficulty with politeness and the ability to form intimate relationships.

Answer 2

Please refine your question. Are you asking, 1) What is the S-W Hypothesis? and 2) What does it imply about the predicate concept 'BE'?

The first is a Wikipedia question, and the second could yield a full article. Or is there something narrower that you wish to address?

Note in response to BoogyWoogy:

The strong form of the S-W hypothesis claims that not only the vocabulary, but the morphology and other grammatical features of a language are related to cultural perception. In particular, the alleged absence of temporal markers in the verbal system of Hopi were claimed to be related to the particular world-view of the Hopi culture. It now appears that both the grammar and the culture of the Hopi were misunderstood by the researches. I am not aware of any study that has shown a causal link (in either direction) between cultural perceptions and grammatical structure. Vocabulary is another matter. A language community will naturally collect words that reflect its preoccupations, and will under-represent other areas. There are limits to this claim of a causal link. Specifically, to claim that the Swedes don't know courtesy words because they are brutish is just a bit less reasonable than to claim that they are brutish because they lack two or three specific vocabulary items!