it goes something like, the lords bowels moveth with compasion for his people,
2007-09-21 04:43:48 · 14 answers · asked by bradlitazole 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I have indeed seen this particular passage but cannot remember which translation it was, but no matter, it was the writer`s human way of expressing the very depth of Gods compassion to his people of the time, it trys to get the point across of the depth of Gods compassion.
2007-09-21 04:52:16 · answer #1 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Darlin' -
I have searched the King James Version, The Good News Version, The Contemporary English Version, The Revised Standard Version, The Young's Literal Translation Bible... all coming up with nada about God's bowels moving.
The King James version has THIS verse:
1st John 3:17 But whoso hath this world's good, and seeth his brother have need, and shutteth up his bowels of compassion from him, how dwelleth the love of God in him?
And the easiest translation is:
1st John 3:17 If we are rich and see others in need, yet close our hearts against them, how can we claim that we love God?
I hope this helps.
Peace.
2007-09-21 04:53:15 · answer #2 · answered by Depoetic 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Jeremiah 31:20
[Is] Ephraim my dear son? [is he] a pleasant child? for since I spake against him, I do earnestly remember him still: therefore my bowels are troubled for him; I will surely have mercy upon him, saith the LORD.
The hebrew ××¢× (pronounced me`ah), is translated "bowles" 27 times, but also translated "heart" and "womb". It refers to the center of being, the seat of the emotions.
It does sound funny, though. My vote for most amusing translation is in Song of Solomon 5:4. "My beloved put in his hand by the hole [of the door], and my bowels were moved for him." It kinda sounds like a certain Senator we've heard about lately.
I'm glad we decided to use "heart" instead of "bowels". Just imagine what Valentine's Day would be like!
2007-09-21 04:55:58 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
The King James Version uses the word "bowels," while the New King James Version (and most others, too) uses the word "heart." Here's one example:
Jeremiah 31:20 Is Ephraim my dear son? is he a pleasant child? for since I spake against him, I do earnestly remember him still: therefore my bowels are troubled for him; I will surely have mercy upon him, saith the LORD.
2007-09-21 04:51:39 · answer #4 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
In the times of the Roman Empire, the world had a whole other language. They spoke of ones inner, deepest feelings as their bowels. 'From within the bowels'.
Also, they had just enough understanding about the body, to know to call the biggest portion of their torso, the bowels. If they expressed their inner feelings, they were thought to be feeling from the bowels.
They were talking about a persons most inner being.
2007-09-21 04:50:20 · answer #5 · answered by judysbookshop 4 · 4⤊ 0⤋
God is spirit. As spirit has no organs it could not reference the physical. It may be a misread - give a reference.
2007-09-21 04:47:51 · answer #6 · answered by jmmevolve 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It means God has compassion for his people. Compassion is love, pity, kindness.
2007-09-21 04:58:43 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
God wants to bless people (by saving them and giving them good things), but He has to wait until we decide to get right with Him (repent).
2007-09-21 04:48:44 · answer #8 · answered by tim 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Man don't act like this, You give Atheists an even worse name than they already have.
2007-09-21 04:47:49 · answer #9 · answered by Pathofreason.com 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
You need to quote it exactly. Otherwise it is ridiculous and makes no sense
2007-09-21 04:47:59 · answer #10 · answered by notyou311 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋