English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

40 answers

Quoted From: http://www.christiananswers.net/q-eden/son-of-man.html


This sounds like some kind of contradiction at first glance, but in fact there is no contradiction. An examination of Scripture reveals that the phrase "Son of Man" carries broad significance.

First of all, even if the phrase "Son of Man" is a reference to Jesus' humanity, it is not a denial of His deity. By becoming a man, Jesus did not cease being God. The incarnation of Christ did not involve the subtraction of deity, but the addition of humanity. Jesus clearly claimed to be God on many occasions (Matthew 16:16,17; John 8:58; 10:30). But in addition to being divine, He was also human (see Philippians 2:6-8). He had two natures (divine and human) conjoined in one person.

Further, Scripture indicates that Jesus was not denying His deity by referring to Himself as the Son of Man. In fact, it is highly revealing that the term "Son of Man" is used in Scripture in contexts of Christ's deity. For example, the Bible says that only God can forgive sins (Isaiah 43:25; Mark 2:7). But as the "Son of Man," Jesus had the power to forgive sins (Mark 2:10). Likewise, Christ will return to earth as the "Son of Man" in clouds of glory to reign on earth (Matthew 26:63-64). In this passage, Jesus is citing Daniel 7:13 where the Messiah is described as the "Ancient of Days," a phrase used to indicate His deity (cf. Daniel 7:9).

Further, when Jesus was asked by the high priest whether He was the "Son of God" (Matthew 26:63), He responded affirmatively, declaring that He was the "Son of Man" who would come in power and great glory (verse 64). This indicated that Jesus Himself used the phrase "Son of Man" to indicate His deity as the Son of God.

Finally, the phrase "Son of Man" also emphasizes who Jesus is in relation to His incarnation and His work of salvation. In the Old Testament (Leviticus 25:25-26, 48-49; Ruth 2:20), the next of kin (one related by blood) always functioned as the "kinsman-redeemer" of a family member who needed redemption from jail. Jesus became related to us "by blood" (that is, He became a man) so He could function as our Kinsman-Redeemer and rescue us from sin.

2007-09-20 10:19:35 · answer #1 · answered by . 3 · 3 4

There is special significance to "The Son of Man." when it is capitalized. Man is God's perfect, spiritual idea. The Son is God's love, the Lamb of God, Christ, Truth. Jesus is the Son of Man (not his physical body, but His spiritual being, His love)

2007-09-20 14:54:32 · answer #2 · answered by ? 6 · 1 0

Its because the phrase "Son of Man" was used in the Old Testament a lot.

The people who made up the story of Jesus wanted to write the story in such a way that Jesus could be made to appear to have fulfilled a bunch of Jewish prophecies, (or at least things that they decided to claim were prophecies). To make their Jesus character appear to have something to do with some of these Jewish scriptures, they decided to have him use the phrase "Son of Man" for himself a lot.

The trick didn't work with the Jews, they still didn't buy into the whole thing. But it was good enough to fool a bunch of the gentiles, since the gentiles didn't really know anything about the Jewish scriptures any way. They saw the phrase "Son of Man" used in both places and fell for it.

I know you're not going to like this answer, but based on everything I've read and learned, this appears to be the real reason that Jesus kept referring to himself that way. If I gave you the answer that I suspect you want to hear, I wouldn't be giving you my honest opinion.

2007-09-20 10:24:17 · answer #3 · answered by Azure Z 6 · 0 3

It was his favourite title for himself, it means human being. Perhaps it also indicates that he saw himself as the second Adam, the one referred to in the prophetic curse on the snake in Genesis: "I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel" (Genesis 3:15).

He came to live the perfect life in obedience to God and thus accomplish what the first man did not. Just as through the first man, death came to us all, through the second man, the Son of Man, life came to us all. See Romans 5:15; 1Corinthians 15:22; 45

2007-09-20 16:50:15 · answer #4 · answered by Beng T 4 · 0 0

Anytime Jesus called himself this He was saying I am a human being. I have come out of a woman, so that makes me a human. But of course we know that Jesus was also the Son of God. That makes him Spiritual. He was both when He was on earth. He was also called the "Son of David" why?
David was not his earthly father. This emphasizes that he was under the linage of David.

2007-09-20 10:24:59 · answer #5 · answered by emison21754 3 · 0 1

You are confused. Disney´s Tarzan is the Son of Man. There is even a song about it: "Son of Man"

2007-09-20 11:27:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

"Son of Man" refers to Jesus being a human being. When this term is used, the emphasis is on Jesus' humanity. When Jesus said that the Son of Man has been given the power to forgive sins, He meant that He, as a man was given this power.

"Son of God" refers to Jesus' divinity. When Jesus is spoken of as the Son of God, the author is making it a point that Jesus is God.

2007-09-20 10:21:49 · answer #7 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 0 3

Jesus was called "the Son of God" which pointed to his divine nature. "Son of Man" pointed to His humanity. If Jesus was indeed the Incarnation, then he was both at the same time, God living in a physical body. I have noticed that Jesus often referred to Himself at "the Son of Man" more than "the Son of God."

2007-09-20 10:21:57 · answer #8 · answered by Chief15534 3 · 0 3

Either title fits Him equally. He is the Son of God and the Son of man.

2007-09-20 10:30:23 · answer #9 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 0 1

Jesus is reffered to as the son of Man, because he was a human, but he is also the Son of God, because God was his father, Mary (contrary to catholic belief) had other children also

2007-09-20 10:26:40 · answer #10 · answered by zorrro857 4 · 1 1

The phrase son of man is used in more than one way in Scripture. In Hebrew "ben-adham" would have been taken originally as a roundabout or poetic reference to a human being. The same is true in Aramaic. In fact, the Aramaic equivalent of the term (bar-nasha) still means man or human being in modern Aramaic.

Thus Ezekiel is referred to as son of man without it indicating that he was anything more than human. (Notice that Ezekiel doesn’t call himself Son of Man as if using a title; rather, the angel addresses him as son of man, as if speaking generically as a non-human to a human being.) Over time a secondary usage of the phrase as a messianic term developed under the influence of prophetic literature such as the vision of Daniel 7.

The fact that son of man originally was a way of saying human being suggests that even when the title acquired the use of being a reference to the Messiah that it still retained the connotation of pointing to a man. Thus it is fair to say that the title calls attention to Jesus’ humanity while—in light of Daniel 7—it also suggests his eternal kingship and messianic mission.

2007-09-20 10:23:35 · answer #11 · answered by lundstroms2004 6 · 0 3

fedest.com, questions and answers