2007-09-20 01:12:20 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Sure didn't.
2007-09-20 01:18:28 · answer #1 · answered by djmantx 7 · 7⤊ 0⤋
Not at all, he had big problems with the way that the priest and others had perverted the law. Look at the "washing" ritual, as well as straining the water to keep from so much as a gnat from being consumed, but at the same time allowing some one to suffer and die if they got injured on the Sabbath. Paying tithes on everything, while allowing their parents to go with out food.
2007-09-20 08:35:35 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus Christ did not have a problem with the law of Moses. But mankind had a problem with it because the law cannot help mankind to fulfill it. So Jesus came to to fulfill the law for mankind so that mankind need not have to fulfill it but can enjoy God's abundance of grace and God's gift of righteousness by believing in Jesus Christ as their Lord and Savior. So mankind is saved by grace and not by the works of the law.
2007-09-20 08:43:09 · answer #3 · answered by seekfind 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think he had more of a problem with it's interpretation. He found people taking it too literally (perhaps our fundamentalists could LEARN something from that) and rejected the legalistic views of the Pharisees.
2007-09-20 08:16:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. He fulfilled it.
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2007-09-20 08:25:21 · answer #5 · answered by Char 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋