my friend lost his trial by declaration in california, but was never told he couldnt take ttraffic school in that response, but he then asked for a plea, and got a court arrangement after he got his result of losing by trial by delaration, and he went to court to ask for traffic school, and they still gave it to him, I have heard of this before, why did the judge still give him traffic school? My friend told the judge the truth though, that he had no idea that by doing the trial by declaration and losing, he wouldnt have a choice of traffic school, why have people gotten traffic school afterwards, but it is only fair to be given it when not advised about it right?
2007-09-19 19:41:13 · 3 answers · asked by IPFREELY 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
I do not understand your question. If you have a trial by declaration and lose, you are then entitled to have the matter set for a "real" trial. (Vehicle Code section 40902, subdivision (d).) When you show up to that, you can request traffic school. Traffic school can be requested and ordered even after conviction.
2007-09-20 08:46:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
who says it always has to be "fair"
judge has the right to do if he see's fit.
2007-09-19 19:52:31 · answer #2 · answered by Tivogal 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Welcome to the American Legal system
I take it your friend had no money?
Cheers
2007-09-19 19:49:24 · answer #3 · answered by james b 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋