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"16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd."

Many people state that this refers to the gentiles. Does Christ ever refer to the gentiles as His Sheep? "Sheep" always refers to The House of Israel.

(For further info, see John 10:6; Matt. 15:24)

A problem will arise here, however with interpretation. For me, the matter is settled when Christ said to the people here on this continent, "And verily I say unto you, that ye are they of whom I said: Other sheep I have which are not of this fold; them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd." He also said, "AND verily, verily, I say unto you that I have other sheep, which are not of this land, neither of the land of Jerusalem, neither in any parts of that land round about whither I have been to minister."

What do you believe? Gentiles or not?

2007-09-19 16:55:06 · 16 answers · asked by Chris B 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

A few amendums at this point:

Sorry I didn't mention it but the quotes at the end were from The Book of Mormon. I ran out of room to explain. I just put that there to explain my position of the question.

In regards to those who quotes Revelation 22...did you know that most of the New Testamet was written AFTER The Book of Revelation. It says the same thing in Deuteronomy too...don't misunderstand what it is trying to say!

We become Israelites when we are baptized, this is true. It doesn't change this particular scripture though. The scripture implies that those He will visit are ALREADY sheep.

Thank you for all the responses so far!

2007-09-19 17:38:23 · update #1

16 answers

Jesus was first sent to the lost house of Israel - as is easy to understand. Only later, did merciful God include the Gentiles in His plan of salvation.

"Other sheep" can refer to both literal Israel AND spiritual Israel which includes converted Gentiles as well.

Gal 3:7 Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham.

2007-09-19 17:06:07 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Gentile is a translation of Goy

Goy -
Hebrew: (usually in plural, goyim), meaning in general all nations except the Jews.

This is where a problem arises.

It was use as a derogatory term for anyone that was not of the tribe of Judah.

It meant - animal or dog, very disparaging term.

By the time Jesus came - Pride the first of the 7 Deadly Sins had become well entrenched in the culture. This was used of any non tribe member...

The people that were in and around Jerusalem were as varied then as today. But the majority in this small area were the remnants of Benjamin who were absorbed by Judah and the remnants of the Tribe of Levi. Mary was half Levi and Half Judah.

His other sheep were all Christians through time till His return.

Peace -C

Do not let them take that from you.

2007-09-20 00:24:39 · answer #2 · answered by cordsoforion 5 · 0 0

Read John 21:15-17 also. Yes Jesus was referring to the Gentiles. But remember A Time, Times and a Half-a-Time.

2007-09-20 00:12:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

When did Christ say that to the people on this continent? Just what continent are you on?

I think you are referrring to the Book of Mormon on that point.

I am not LDS but I do believe that Christ is referring to the gentiles in John 10:16

2007-09-20 00:00:29 · answer #4 · answered by starrystarrynight 4 · 0 0

I reckon this is in reference to the Gentiles that must be grafted into the 'olive tree' that is The Jews,to incorporate The Body of Christ.
'And not for that nation only,but that also He should gather together in one the children of God that were scattered abroad' John 11:52.
'And that the Gentiles might glorify God for His mercy;as it is written,For this cause I will confess to you among the Gentiles,and sing to your name.And again He says,Rejoice,you Gentiles,with His people.And again,Praise the Lord,all you Gentiles;and laud him,all you people.And again,Isaiah says,There shall be a root of Jesse,and he that shall rise to reign over the Gentiles;in him shall the Gentiles trust'.Romans 15:9-12.

2007-09-20 00:20:21 · answer #5 · answered by Wonderwall 4 · 0 0

It could be both.

Jesus said he has some who are not of this sheep pen. Could the sheep pen be in reference who all have been saved including Jews and Gentiles?

And could the sheep outside the pen be the sheep who will be saved both Gentiles and Jews?

2007-09-20 00:01:01 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Seems very clear to me He was talking about a future world filled with Christians.
Mostly Gentile ( other sheep)

2007-09-20 00:00:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Check out Galatians 3:26-29
Everyone who has faith and is baptized into Christ is a son and an heir according to the promise.
Abraham's seed.

I missed the whole "this continent" thing at first. You might read Rev 22:18-19.

2007-09-20 00:00:51 · answer #8 · answered by songndance1999 4 · 0 1

I don't know what the earthly Jesus was saying, but the exalted Jesus wanted to reach the Gentiles through Peter and Paul. Paul was the missionary, and Peter eventually came around after separation from the Judaizers. That's far removed from your Gospel context, but it helps me to understand the verse at least.

2007-09-20 00:06:24 · answer #9 · answered by ADB44281 1 · 0 0

Then why would Christ come to this continent and not to all the others as well?

What preparation did God make for those who would receive that message ... and why is there no record or mention of that event in ANY of the native American cultures?

Why would Jesus reveal himself as someone totally different than the Jesus that was known and loved by all the true apostles and disciples?

Did Jesus lie to the apostles, or did Jesus lie to Joseph Smith?

2007-09-20 00:09:53 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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