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http://www.taxhistory.org/thp/thpwebsite.nsf/Web/PresidentialTaxReturns?OpenDocument

Here is the link Look at GWB 2001 line 69 zero dollars applied. 2002 line 63 says 170,000+ in 2001 was applied. Why is this??? The years following 2002 and so on dont match. Cheneys are the same way.

Is this legal???

2007-09-19 14:49:29 · 2 answers · asked by MyMysteryId 3 in Business & Finance Taxes United States

A copy of Form 1040-ES is not included in the tax return so you can NOT base your answer on a non existant form 1040-ES. Besides that is only an estimated amount where is the proof of the actual tax payments made??? Sorry still no good answer.

2007-09-20 03:21:17 · update #1

2 answers

Please go back and read it again. Line 63 says, "2002 estimated tax payments and amount applied from 2001 return" He obviously made $170,240 in estimated tax payments (using Form 1040-ES) during 2002 as there was no excess applied from the 2001 return.

Quite normal AND legal.

2007-09-19 15:15:18 · answer #1 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 2 1

What is happening is he is applying his refund to the amount of tax he is estimating to pay the following year. Nothing wrong or unusual here, people who have a lot of income not subject to withholding to this all the time.

2007-09-19 23:47:01 · answer #2 · answered by Charlie & Angie G 4 · 0 1

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