Which is correct? 'A man whose work is to amuse others... ' or 'A man whose work it is to amuse others..'?

Question

Do we say

'A man whose work is to amuse others is an entertainer.'
or
'A man whose work it is to amuse others is an entertainer.'

I have been using the first sentence but an online English test shows the second as the correct answer. Have I been wrong all the while or do both sentences work?

Also, does anyone has a good site to recommend for getting expert answers on questions pertaining to the English Language?

Thanks!

Answer 1

I do have a very slight preference for the second. I think it's because the first parallels the noun "work" with the verb phrase "to amuse others". "A man whose work is amusing others" would be better.

Answer 2

the first one is correct, firstly, because 'whose' is already the linking word in the defining clause,

secondly, 'it' refers to 'work' which is also already mentioned in the sentence,,, so there's no need to refer to it again ....it just sounds awkward

it's preferable to say:
'A man, whose work is amusING others, is called an entertainer'

Answer 3

Definitely, absolutely, totally, undoubtedly, unquestionably the first one.
In the second sentence, what is the role and function of "it"? It can't be the subject of "is (to amuse)" because "work" is the subject of "is to amuse". "man" is the subject of "is (an entertainer)".

Answer 4

I think in the 2nd sentence, "It" is redundant because "it" refers to "the man's WORK" so we have mentioned "work" and we don't need to mention it once more

Answer 5

both sentences are right but the first one makes more sense

Answer 6

they are both acceptable