Many fundies seem to be convinced that Jesus was an antigay activist, but if I recall correctly, he never said anything about that.
2007-09-19 06:55:56 · 25 answers · asked by Belzetot 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yeah, I want to know, too.
EDIT: Sorry, ailes_95 that's not Jesus talking.
Also, part of Sodom and Gomorrah involves men trying to RAPE ANGELS. It's not the fact that anyone was gay, it's has to do with violence and harrassment. And since when has anyone had sex with an angel anyway? Ridiculous.
2007-09-19 06:59:35 · answer #1 · answered by spike_is_my_evil_vampire 4 · 5⤊ 0⤋
In the course of Jesus' teachings, he did not address many different issues. Usually because the issues were of minimum importance to most people. Kind of like homosexuality, which as usually been measured to involve about 2% of the population. Even the more "radical" groups that I have read do not put the number above 10%. So it is an issue that does not affect 90 to 98% of the population. So why would you make it a major thrust in your teachings?
Rather Jesus reminded people that his teachings were in support of the Old Testament (includings those which forbid homosexuality) and that "anyone who breaks those laws will be least in the Kingdom of Heaven". And instead he spent the majority of his teaching looking forward to the cross and the way of salvation from those sins that he would provide.
Also realize that the gospels where written AFTER the writings of Paul were already considered scripture in the church. In fact, Luke includes nearly two dozens phrases from Paul's writings in his gospel, including one lenghty quote as having been spoken by Jesus. (And in Paul's writings he gives it as a quote from Jesus.)
So the teachings of Paul, such as 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 which states that no homosexual will enter the kingdom of God, where already accepted teachings. There was no reason to repeat those same teachings through the words of Jesus. Rather they concentrate on giving teachings in areas not covered by Paul.
But the real question is - did Jesus have anything to say about homosexuality? No specifically. Same as he had nothing to say about rape, paedophile, fetishes, s/m etc. Rather then tantilize his audience by alluding to evil things that might awaken desire within his followers for them, he spoke instead of the need for sexual purity, of a relationship between one man and one woman, faithfulness to each other, and the love relationship that honors and cherishes such a union. If you build that, there is no need to decry the perversions.
Why is homosexuality such an issue in the church today? Because those who practice it have forced the issue. When they try to take a perversion and make in socially acceptabel and legally protected, then the church has no choice but to speak out against it. the same would happen if people tried to make theft socially and legally acceptable, or drunk drving socially and legally acceptable.
2007-09-19 07:21:24 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Anyone against Homosexuals is a homophobe by todays terms . Isnt that a given.
2013-12-19 16:15:23 · answer #3 · answered by mofunone 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Jesus" never says anything about it.
Well, he DOES say specifically, and in many different places, that the old Mosiac Law is NOT dead, e.g. "Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." (Matt. 5:18.) And, of course, that includes the savage and barbaric injunctions of Leviticus, which say, among other things, that men who lie with men shall be put to death (as shall disobedient children, etc).
But it's dangerous for "Christians" to bring this up, because "Christians" like to pretend that they're no longer bound by the Mosaic Law, precisely because it IS so patently savage and barbaric in so many ways beyond the gay-bashing extract that they so cherish.
Then there are the oft-quoted passages in Paul - but Paul is not Jesus, and probably wasn't even Paul! Scholars agree that many of the letters attributed to Paul were more than likely written by an anonymous follower who used the name to lend an air of authority to his opinions.
2007-09-19 07:02:34 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
The closest "anti-gay" statement from Jesus was his blessing the wedding, which is hardly a condemnation. He often used brides and grooms as representations of God and humankind.
The wedding he blessed was, according to some experts, his own.
2007-09-19 07:01:30 · answer #5 · answered by Emerald Blue 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
no longer in user-friendly terms did he no longer communicate approximately it, he in no way puzzled every physique. case in point, there's a narrative with a Roman centurion. all of us know that Roman infantrymen, merely like the Greeks, "bonded" interior of their ranks with one yet another. yet, whilst this soldier got here to ask that his servant/son (based on the interpretation) be healed and reported all Jesus needs to assert it in user-friendly terms a be conscious (that he would not choose Jesus to work out his slave), Jesus praised him on his faith. He did no longer ask the Roman soldier if he practiced gay intercourse earlier praising his faith. It did no longer rely to Jesus. "fairly I inform you, I easily have not chanced on every physique in Israel with such super faith. I say to you that many will come from the east and the west, and could take their places on the ceremonial dinner with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob interior the dominion of heaven. however the themes of the dominion would be thrown exterior, into the darkness, the place there will be weeping and gnashing of tooth. bypass! permit that is accomplished merely as you believed it would." As advised by the two Matthew and Luke.
2016-10-19 02:53:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No he never did, the only ones he ever "attacked" were the holier than thou ,self righteous, religious people. Jesus would have loved and forgiven, but don't mistake that for agreement with. I can love someone and forgive them and even tolerate things they do but that doesn't make it right.
2007-09-19 07:05:20 · answer #7 · answered by Connie D 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He never says anything about homosexuality. It speaks of it in the old testament and the letters after his death written by other people in the New Tesatament
2007-09-19 07:00:23 · answer #8 · answered by christian_me 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
It was part of God's law handed down via Moses that man should not lay with man nor woman with woman. The cities of Sodom and Gormorah were destroyed because of their homosexual behavior.
There is also the fact that if God wanted same sex relationships to happen, he would have made an Adam and Adam and an Eve and Eve.
Jesus was not an activist of any kind other than to spread God's Word.
2007-09-19 07:00:47 · answer #9 · answered by Mom of 2 5 · 1⤊ 4⤋
I think the logic goes something like this.
The bible talks about the unricheous city of Sodom without going into specifics about what was unricheous about them. Some of the men of Sodom wanted to do the nasty with other men on one occasion.
God was in good form in those days and he smote them with fire and brimstone. Then the lone richeous man of Sodom had sex with his daugthers.
The moral of the story - Jesus is anti gay.
2007-09-19 07:06:08 · answer #10 · answered by Ben O 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋