2007-09-18 06:31:35 · 14 answers · asked by G 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Pretty much every language (except for English) does this.
2007-09-18 06:34:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 2⤋
Dear G,
With feminine and masculine words you refer to the grammatical gender of words.
As a linguist, I can tell you that some languages categorise words (usually nouns). In Indo-European languages, the following grammatical genders exist:
a. feminine - masculine (e.g. French)
b. feminine - masculine - neutral (e.g. German)
c. neutral - non-neutral (e.g. Dutch and Swedish)
d. none (English)
Some languages have lost their gender, like English, and other had masculine and feminine, but they become one gender, the non-neutral.
G, feminine and masculine are not there to p/ss learners of French off, not on purpose anyway, but rather it's a way to think of objects and how to classify them in our minds.
Other languages have 5 or more genders! Read the Wikipedia article on grammatical gender - it's a good start into a fascinating subject!
2007-09-18 14:06:40 · answer #2 · answered by Ced 3 · 6⤊ 1⤋
Yeah, where i'm from the everage person can speak dutch, english, spanish and our native language 'Papiamentu'. Out of the four, only english doesn't use feminine and masculine words. It's like a grammar rule.
2007-09-18 13:36:35 · answer #3 · answered by CURA 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
They do in most languages. They did in English until a few centuries ago. It means we can't translate phrases like the Italian "cosi fan tutte" without having to add extra words.
2007-09-18 13:36:23 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you think this is unnecessary try German - Masculin, feminine and neuter (plus 4 cases) - you get 16 variations of 'the'!
And why is it der (m) mann but das (n) mannchen (meaning little man ie boy)? Die (f) frau and das (n) fraulein? Crazy people those Germans!
2007-09-19 16:38:15 · answer #5 · answered by J S 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I have been asking myself that question for years and nobody seems to come up with a definitve answer. That is the very reason I stopped learning that language years ago.
2007-09-19 01:47:56 · answer #6 · answered by ipoian 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i do not know how to explain it. but i'll give it a go.
for example one talking to a female, your entire vocab would be different, not only you would use "she, her, etc" but also there is a feminine "you" as well.
Also some words such as (trying to remember correctly)
car, plane, etc would be used as if they're feminine.
Also..
you probably know this already,
but just like spanish and arabic,
there are words specifically addresses for
older, people of higher class, etc (formal vocab)
and also words for younger kids, your friends,
and casual convos (informal vocab).
2007-09-18 13:44:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Provides work for a lot of French teachers.
On a theoretical linguistics level, it is one of the features that add clarity/redundancy to the language, because instead of just "it" you say "he" or "she".
2007-09-18 13:37:01 · answer #8 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
for the same reason we do, to indicate gender.
HE/ SHE
HIS/ HERS
and also because some words have Masculine and Feminine roots in latin.
2007-09-18 13:35:24 · answer #9 · answered by essentiallysolo 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because they do not have a neutral gender.
2007-09-18 15:48:27 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋