It doesn't matter whether one says Jesus is "God" or "a god" there is still a problem with John 17:3 when it says "...that they might know thee the only true God..." There is only one true God and Jesus must either be the true God with the Father and the Holy Spirit or else He must be a false God. If Jesus is a lesser god then John 1:1 must be taken as an assertion of polytheism. If Jesus is equal to the Father in His essence of being God, then we have a triune God.
If Jesus was "a god", then please explain why the New World Translation implies polytheism.
2007-09-16 19:26:57 · 7 answers · asked by Graham 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
laptop, celtic, and B: Did the pagan chatroom run out of doughnuts? If you want to ask questions, then post them. Don't piggyback me.
2007-09-16 19:38:22 · update #1
John 1:1 in a literal translation reads thus: "In beginning was the word, and the word was with the God, and God was the word." Notice that it says "God was the word." This is the actual word for word translation. It is not saying that "a god was the word." That wouldn't make sense. Let me break it down into three statements.
"In beginning was the word..."
(en arche en ho logos)
A very simple statement that the Word was in the beginning.
"and the word was with the God..."
(kai ho logos en pros ton theon)
This same Word was with God.
"and God was the word." -- Properly translated as "and the Word was God."
(kai theos en ho logos)
This same Word was God.
2007-09-16 19:40:50 · update #2
Nope Stevie P: no scripture pin-pong. If you wanna ask a question, then post it. Either answer mine or go have some cookies before bedtime.
2007-09-16 19:45:21 · update #3
John was a strict Jew, a monotheist. Does the Jehovah's Witness really think that John would be saying that there was another God besides Jehovah, even if it were Jesus? Being raised a good Jew, the apostle John would never believe that there was more than one God in existence. Yet, he compared the word with God, said the word was God, and that the word became flesh (John 1:1,14).
John 1:1 in a literal translation reads thus: "In beginning was the word, and the word was with the God, and God was the word." Notice that it says "God was the word." This is the actual word for word translation. It is not saying that "a god was the word." That wouldn't make sense. .
2007-09-16 19:48:14 · update #4
thanks, lamb. you're a blessing.
2007-09-16 20:05:28 · update #5
Hey 'B': You got it wrong. Allah is not God. Thought you'd like to know.
2007-09-16 20:07:28 · update #6
I think steveP went to have his cookies...LOL...You are doing great! There are so many scriptures that attest to Jesus divinity. No man Can see god and Live is kinder garden theology, and almost not worth comment..especially in that the one who asked that, is so rude to anyone who posts questions about Witnesses here.
I will help out, anyway..Christ set aside his divinity to come in human form...See easy!..See How Humble our God can be..It is a wonderful thing, Grace.
2007-09-16 19:55:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 1⤋
That Stevie P/Heavenly Eyes guy reminds me of one of those mole things you whack with a mallet when you take your kids for pizza!
Anyway, the whole JW concept of Christ is so far out of kilter that I'm amazed anyone ever buys it. I mean, I let one of them try to explain to me that whole Jesus-Michael thing, and it's just out there!!!
But I agree. The NWT version implies polytheism.
2007-09-17 03:38:27 · answer #2 · answered by polyman77 1 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Good question. I never thought about it before. Saying he is "a god" definitely implies there is more than one. Wow.
UL,is right..go have cookies....lol...you're too much.
By the way, why are you awake?? Aren't you east coast?
2007-09-17 03:16:04 · answer #3 · answered by Jeni2 1 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No, wait. First explain why the bible contradicts itself HOPELESSLY about the most important event ever: the resurrection.
It disagrees about WHO went to the tomb, when, were men or angels there, how many, etc etc. Just tell me what happened, leaving nothing out on that day (which ya have to admit is a tad important). And keep it "in order" and then you can get back to me on the nitty gritty of different translations.
2007-09-17 02:30:43 · answer #4 · answered by Laptop Jesus 3.9 7 · 3⤊ 3⤋
This argument is nearly as old as organized Christianity in and of itself. It's a little known fact that Jesus was only narrowly "elected" as divine by the counsil of Nicea in the 400's. To solve this problem, the counsil simply created the concept of the Trinity (or, rather, borrowed it from Pagan cultures).
2007-09-17 02:32:10 · answer #5 · answered by Celtic 2 · 2⤊ 4⤋
If YOUR WAY OF THINKING is even REMOTELY Correct then why does John 1:18 say that "NO MAN has seen God AT ANY TIME" ! ! !
In Case YOU DIDN'T KNOW IT ! Thousands of People saw Jesus during his Earthly Course of Faithfulness !
Instead of Reading JUST ONE Scripture OUT OF CONTEXT you need to "READ THE SURROUNDING SCRIPTURES". IN "your case" all that YOU NEEDED was to simply FINISH THE FIRST CHAPTER OF JOHN ! ! ! ! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!
2007-09-17 02:42:00 · answer #6 · answered by . 7 · 0⤊ 5⤋
Jesus is NOT God.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zIsWom8X7Hg
2007-09-17 02:34:41 · answer #7 · answered by B 4 · 1⤊ 5⤋