Why did the KJV add "...the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one" to the bible?

Question

Compare -

KJV 1 John 5: http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=69&chapter=5&verse=6&end_verse=8&version=9&context=context

7) For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
8) And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

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NIV: http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=69&chapter=5&verse=6&end_verse=8&version=31&context=context

NAS: http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20John%205:6-8;&version=49;

Darby: http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20John%205:6-8;&version=16;

1 John 5:
7) For there are three that testify:
8) the Spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement.
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Answer 1

The canon of the Old Testament that Catholics use is based on the text used by Alexandrian Jews, a version known as the "Septuagint" and which came into being around 280 B.C. as a translation of then existing texts from Hebrew into Greek by 72 Jewish scribes (the Torah was translated first, around 300 B.C., and the rest of Tanach was translated afterward).

The Septuagint is the Old Testament referred to in the Didache or "Doctrine of the Apostles" (first century Christian writings) and by Origen, Irenaeus of Lyons, Hippolytus, Tertullian, Cyprian of Carthage, Justin Martyr, St. Augustine and the vast majority of early Christians who referenced Scripture in their writings. The Epistle of Pope Clement, written in the first century, refers to the Books Ecclesiasticus and Wisdom, analyzed the book of Judith, and quotes sections of the book of Esther that were removed from Protestant Bibles.


In the 16th c., Luther, reacting to serious abuses and clerical corruption in the Latin Church, to his own heretical theological vision (see articles on sola scriptura and sola fide), and, frankly, to his own inner demons, removed those books from the canon that lent support to orthodox doctrine, relegating them to an appendix. Removed in this way were books that supported such things as prayers for the dead (Tobit 12:12; 2 Maccabees 12:39-45), Purgatory (Wisdom 3:1-7), intercession of dead saints (2 Maccabees 15:14), and intercession of angels as intermediaries (Tobit 12:12-15). Ultimately, the "Reformers" decided to ignore the canon determined by the Christian Councils of Hippo and Carthage.

The Latin Church in no way ignored the post-Temple rabbincal texts. Some Old Testament translations of the canon used by the Latin Church were also based in part on rabbinical translations, for example St. Jerome's 5th c. Latin translation of the Bible called the Vulgate.

The "Masoretic texts" refers to translations of the Old Testament made by rabbis between the 6th and 10th centuries; the phrase doesn't refer to ancient texts in the Hebrew language. Some people think that the Masoretic texts are the "original texts" and that, simply because they are in Hebrew, they are superior.

Some Protestants claim that the "Apocrypha" are not quoted in the New Testament so, therefore, they are not canonical.
Going by that standard of proof, we'd have to throw out Joshua, Judges, Ruth, 2 Kings, 1 Chronicles, 2 Chronicles, Ezra, Nehemiah, Esther, Ecclesiastes, Song of Solomon, Lamentations, Obadiah, Nahum, and Zephaniah because none of these Old Testament Books are quoted in the New Testament.


But there is a bigger lesson in all this confusion over not only the canon but proper translation of the canon , especially considering that even within the Catholic Church there have been differing opinions by individual theologians about the proper place of the deuterocanonicals (not that an individual theologian's opinions count for Magisterial teaching!).
The lesson, though, is this: relying on the "Bible alone" is a bad idea; we are not to rely solely on Sacred Scripture to understand Christ's message. While Scripture is "given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" (2 Timothy 3:16-17), it is not sufficient for reproof, correction and instruction in righteousness.
It is the Church that is the "pillar and ground of Truth" (1 Timothy 3:15)!
Jesus did not come to write a book; He came to redeem us, and He founded a Sacramental Church through His apostles to show us the way.
It is to them, to the Church Fathers, to the Sacred Deposit of Faith, to the living Church that is guided by the Holy Spirit, and to Scripture that we must prayerfully look.

Answer 2

"in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." these words are part of the Johannine Comma, which are extra words that appear in 1 John 5:7-8. These words are usually absent from Greek Manuscripts and they are not included in modern critical editions of Greek text, or in the English versions. The English Standard Version states: "For there are three that testify: the Spirit and the water and the blood; and these three agree." The trinity is a false teaching introduced to early Christians through the pagans. Most of all Christian beliefs and practices are pagan and not scriptural. The celebration of Christmas and Easter came from the pagans. The belief in the immortal soul came from the pagans. The symbol of the cross came from the pagans. Christians are not Christian because they do not live by the bible but by their own teachings. I believe everyone should question everything. Question what your minister, television, internet, family and friends tell you. Question Everything!

Answer 3

This is what I know to be true regarding the "Word". A few answerers were confused on this, hope this helps.

14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

This means becoming a human. By doing so, Christ became (1) the perfect teacher. In Jesus' life we see how God thinks and therefore how we should think (Phil 2:5-11); (2) the perfect example- as a model of what we are to become, he shows us how to live and gives us the power to live that way (1 Peter 2:21); (3) the perfect sacrifice- Jesus came as a sacrifice for all sins, and his death satisfied God's requirements for the removal of sin. (Col 1:15-23)

Referring to your specific question, KJV did not "add" anything, the other bibles took those words away. I only read KJV as it is the most accurate translation we have today. These other bibles have watered down the scriptures and frankly, they're harder for me to understand because they are vague and misleading at times.
I hope this helps.
;)

Answer 4

There were some mighty poor answers here. In a nutshell, the translators of the King James Bible (KJV) translated what they had available. It's true, the text from which they translated had this addition (and several others). Over the centuries, biblical scholars have determined that there are *several* additions to the original texts that had been added by copyists (and, as a result, ended up in our translations). Most of them are mere glosses, but a few are more significant.

So, it is not really fair to say that the KJV added these words, because in fact the translators of that work were attempting to create an accurate translation. We do not know who originally added these words (likely centuries previous) to their source text. There are several other additions to scripture which have been discovered and noted in more recent translations. This is just one more good reason to rely on a more recent (and more accurate) translation than the KJV.

Jim, http://www.jimpettis.com/wheel/

Answer 5

Because the trinity is not taught in the bible, so trinitarians had to add words to prove this false doctrine.

This is also true about the NIV:

Concerning the NIV:

Bruce Metzger: (NIV) "It is surprising that translators who profess to have 'a high view of scripture" should take liberties with text by omitting words or, more often, by adding words that are not in the manuscripts."


edit:

Prior to 1727, Isaac Newton could prove that 1 John 5:7 was in error.

He traced the way in which the spurious reading crept into the Latin versions, first as a marginal note, and later into the text itself. He showed that it was first taken into a Greek text in 1515 by Cardinal Ximenes on the strength of a late Greek manuscript corrected from the Latin.

The error was only 100 years old at the time of the KJV.

Even the manuscripts such as the latin Vulgate did not contain these words. Which was available in 1611.

7 quia tres sunt qui testimonium dant 8 Spiritus et aqua et sanguis et tres unum sunt .

And the latin Vulgate was one of the main sources of the KJV.

The translators of the KJV chose to add the words in their translation.

.

Answer 6

The KJV is based on the Textus Receptus, which is found to have many doctrinal errors.

You found one of them


"1 John 5:7, 8 reads: “For there are three witness bearers, the spirit and the water and the blood, and the three are in agreement [margin: are for the one thing].” This is a literal translation of the Greek text by the above-named Augustinus Merk, S.J., in his Novum Testamentum Graece et Latine; it is also a literal translation of the Greek text by the other Roman Catholic scholar, Joseph M. Bover, S.J., in his Novi Testamenti Biblia Graeca et Latina; as well as of Nestle’s Novum Testamentum Graece and of the Westcott and Hort Greek text. So you see that even those Jesuit scholars do not include in their Greek texts the words, “in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost. And these three are one. And there are three that give testimony on earth.” (Douay) Those words are now recognized by all genuine scholars as spurious to the authentic Greek text. Your own precious Vatican Manuscript No. 1209 of the early 4th century does not contain the words, but brands them spurious."

Answer 7

The Greek manuscripts available to the translators of the KJV were inferior to those available to later writers. The KJV translators had to actually reconstruct the Greek text of part of the New Testament from a Latin translation.

Answer 8

Because the KJV translators were Believers in the Trinity and used the OPPORTUNITY to Use there BIAS BELIEFS to ADD to the Bible ANYWHERE POSSIBLE The Idea that God is a Trinity !

Also these translators DIDN'T WANT TO DISAPPOINT KING JAMES who "already" HIMSELF Believed in the Trinity !

Answer 9

To cover legal issues, ie the written word, which empowered kingships through Magna Carta, from Mary Magdolene's siding with French Aristocrats after the death of Jesus.

Answer 10

A lot of changes were made by copyist, and it wasn't until the early 1900s when the original Greek manuscripts were discovered. The most known is the name of God (YHWH/Jehovah) which was replaced with Lord and God (not LORD and GOD) in the New Testament.

Revelation 22:18-19
18 I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds anything to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book.

19 And if anyone takes words away from this book of prophecy, God will take away from him his share in the tree of life and in the holy city, which are described in this book.

Answer 11

probably to co-incide with the name Elohim mentioned in Genesis 1:1. oh, and that was not an addition of the KJV, but simply compiling of the later manusctripts