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by one of JW's for research..I found that the name of Jehovah was taken out of the Bible from the old testatments..but, the name Jehovah was not mentioned for the new testatments...So why was the name Jehovah added so many times where it wasn't suppose to be in your NWT Bible? I am curious as to why you think that his name was in the New Testament when that is not what research shows to be.

2007-09-16 09:54:46 · 6 answers · asked by angel 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

HEAVENly EYES,,why are you so hostile..Wow..I know Jehovah's name is in the bible..I just don't see the research to show it was in the New Testaments..
I also, know that it is in there 7,000 times..In the OLD Testaments. You don't have to be so rude..I am asking a question because I really want to know! Gee.

2007-09-16 11:23:08 · update #1

6 answers

Rather than type a very lengthy explanation, I am going to provide you with a link that will explain your question completely. If you really want to know the answer, here it is:
http://www.watchtower.org/library/na/article_06.htm

Also, may I suggest, "Truth in Translation" by Jason BeDuhn
He makes mention of this as well.

2007-09-16 14:35:53 · answer #1 · answered by izofblue37 5 · 0 0

The Emphatic Diaglott: The name Jehovah is found at Matthew 21:9 and in 17 other places in this translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.

Jerome, in the fourth century, wrote: “Matthew, who is also Levi, and who from a publican came to be an apostle, first of all composed a Gospel of Christ in Judaea in the Hebrew language and characters for the benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed.” (De viris inlustribus, chap. III) This Gospel includes 11 direct quotations of portions of the Hebrew Scriptures where the Tetragrammaton is found. There is no reason to believe that Matthew did not quote the passages as they were written in the Hebrew text from which he quoted.

in the German language, there are at least five “New Testament” translations that contain the divine name.

One of these, the translation by Dominikus von Brentano in 1796, which uses the divine name twice in its main text, has been referred to in past Watch Tower publications. Two additional translations use that name at Mark 12:29,one, a translation by Stolz, published in Zurich, Switzerland, in 1781, and the other, a translation by Professor Dr. Johann Babor, published in Vienna, Austria, in 1805. There is also the so-called Bonner Bible, translated by Professor D. P. Dausch and published in Bonn, Germany, in 1932, which uses “Jahve”

Another German translation uses the name, Jehovah, ten times in the “New Testament.” This is a two-volume translation of the New Testament of the Holy Scriptures that appeared in Munich, Germany, in 1789 and 1790.

Basel and Bremen missionaries, followed with translations of parts of the Bible into the vernacular languages, and by 1871 the entire Bible was available in print in Twi, Ewe and Ga.

These translations were so accurate, as far as the languages were concerned, that the Ewe and Ga ones are still the only translations in use.

One more commendable feature of their translations is the use of the Divine Name. This, rendered Iehowa and Yehowa, appears in the Hebrew Scriptures in almost all its proper places in all three translations. The Ewe and Ga translators did even better than that. They used the Divine Name in the Greek Scriptures, in Ga at 2 Corinthians 6:17 and 18 and in Ewe at Hebrews 7:21; 13:6; 1 Peter 3:12 and in the book of Revelation wherever the expression “Hallelujah” occurs.

Jesus made this statement: John 17:26  And I have declared unto them thy name, and will declare it: that the love wherewith thou hast loved me may be in them, and I in them. King James Bible

It would seem according to his statement, He used his fathers name and the Apostles used it also.

2007-09-16 17:12:06 · answer #2 · answered by BJ 7 · 1 1

This is a good question. I hope to hear some answers from JW's. I think they may say something to the tune of, "well, as you know, the New Testament, unlike the Old Testament, was written in Greek, not Hebrew, and therefore couldn't possibly contain the "Hebrew" word "Jehovah" or "YHVH."

For example, in the beginning of the gospel of John the greek word for God the Father is "Ho Theos" and the greek word for God the Son is "Theos." ("In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the word Was God.")

2007-09-16 17:02:21 · answer #3 · answered by Arthurpod 4 · 0 2

the old original scrolls have ti there. Jesus used that name, there is no old testament or new it is hebrew scriptures and greek scriptures.

the bible is one book, not two. (actually 66 little books)so it is 66 biblias.

RRRR

2007-09-16 17:18:34 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Well "YOU"(not me) ADMITTED that Jehovah's Name is in the Old Testament MANY TIMES(actually thousands of times) ! ! !

When a NT "Writer" WOULD QUOTE an OT "Scripture" that ALREADY HAD Jehovah's name; It is ONLY LOGICAL that the NT Writer would of SUPPLIED the name Jehovah IN "THE PROCESS" ! ! ! Because it Was (ALREADY THERE) ! ! !

NEXT QUESTION PLEASE ! ! ~! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

2007-09-16 17:17:30 · answer #5 · answered by . 7 · 1 3

Some Comments by Greek Scholars on The New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures

“I am interested in the mission work of your people, and its world wide scope, and much pleased with the free, frank and vigorous translation. It exhibits a vast array of sound serious learning, as I can testify.”—Letter, December 8, 1950, from Edgar J. Goodspeed, translator of the Greek “New Testament” in An American Translation.

“The translation is evidently the work of skilled and clever scholars, who have sought to bring out as much of the true sense of the Greek text as the English language is capable of expressing.”—Hebrew and Greek scholar Alexander Thomson, in The Differentiator, April 1952, pages 52-7.

“The translation of the New Testament is evidence of the presence in the movement of scholars qualified to deal intelligently with the many problems of Biblical translation.”—Andover Newton Quarterly, January 1963.

“The New Testament translation was made by a committee whose membership has never been revealed—a committee that possessed an unusual competence in Greek.”—Andover Newton Quarterly, September 1966.

“This is no ordinary interlinear: the integrity of the text is preserved, and the English which appears below it is simply the basic meaning of the Greek word. . . . After examining a copy, I equipped several interested second-year Greek students with it as an auxiliary text. . . . The translation by the anonymous committee is thoroughly up-to-date and consistently accurate. . . . In sum, when a Witness comes to the door, the classicist, Greek student, or Bible student alike would do well to bring him in and place an order.”—From a review of The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures, by Thomas N. Winter of the University of Nebraska, appearing in The Classical Journal, April–May 1974.
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in 1973 the New World Translation was rated by a British Bible handbook compiler as one of 14 main English translations of the 20th century.

● Is it true that the teachings of Jehovah’s witnesses are based on the New World Translation of the Bible?
The fact that the New World Translation bears out teachings of Jehovah’s witnesses does not prove that the teachings of Jehovah’s witnesses are founded upon this Bible translation. Since 1879 The Watchtower has been published, setting forth the things that Jehovah’s witnesses believe and teach. The New World Translation, which the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society has accepted as a gift from the New World Bible Translation Committee, first began to be published in part in 1950, and volumes of it have been coming out from time to time since then. Consequently, the formulation of the Bible doctrine of Jehovah’s witnesses did not wait upon the New World Translation, beginning in 1950.

Up until 1950 the teachings of Jehovah’s witnesses were based mainly upon the King James Version of the Bible, but in the course of years the publications of the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society in English alone have quoted from more than seventy different Bible translations produced in Christendom. This does not take into account the fact that our literature is published in more than 125 languages and that these foreign languages do not have the English New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures. In all parts of the world Jehovah’s witnesses are proving their Bible-based beliefs to the people by the copy of the Bible that the householder may have or that he may recognize as authoritative. So the New World Translation comes along merely as a confirmation of the correctness of the teachings of Jehovah’s witnesses and does not constitute the foundation of their teachings.

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Wolfgang Feneberg comments in the Jesuit magazine Entschluss/Offen (April 1985): “He [Jesus] did not withhold his father’s name YHWH from us, but he entrusted us with it. It is otherwise inexplicable why the first petition of the Lord’s Prayer should read: ‘May your name be sanctified!’” Feneberg further notes that “in pre-Christian manuscripts for Greek-speaking Jews, God’s name was not paraphrased with kýrios [Lord], but was written in the tetragram form [YHWH] in Hebrew or archaic Hebrew characters. . . . We find recollections of the name in the writings of the Church Fathers;

Professor George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote: “Since the Tetragram [four Hebrew letters for the divine name] was still written in the copies of the Greek Bible which made up the Scriptures of the early church, it is reasonable to believe that the N[ew] T[estament] writers, when quoting from Scripture, preserved the Tetragram within the biblical text.”—Journal of Biblical Literature, March 1977, p. 77.

“In pre-Christian Greek [manuscripts] of the O[ld] T[estament], the divine name (yhwh) was not rendered by ‘kyrios’ [lord] as has often been thought. Usually the Tetragram was written out in Aramaic or in paleo-Hebrew letters. . . . At a later time, surrogates [substitutes] such as ‘theos’ [God] and ‘kyrios’ replaced the Tetragram . . . There is good reason to believe that a similar pattern evolved in the N[ew] T[estament], i.e. the divine name was originally written in the NT quotations of and allusions to the OT, but in the course of time it was replaced by surrogates.”—“New Testament Abstracts,” 3, 1977, p. 306.

The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Volume 2, page 649) says: “One of the most fundamental and essential features of the biblical revelation is the fact that God is not without a name: he has a personal name, by which he can, and is to be, invoked.” Jesus certainly had that name in mind when he taught his followers to pray: “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.”—Matthew 6:9.
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On one celebrated occasion, God pronounced his own name, repeating it in the hearing of Moses. Moses wrote an account of that event that has been preserved in the Bible down to our day. (Exodus 34:5) God even wrote his name with his own “finger.” When he had given Moses what we today call the Ten Commandments, God miraculously wrote them down. The record says: “Now as soon as [God] had finished speaking with him on Mount Sinai he proceeded to give Moses two tablets of the Testimony, tablets of stone written on by God’s finger.” (Exodus 31:18) God’s name appears eight times in the original Ten Commandments. (Exodus 20:1-17) Thus God himself has revealed his name to man both verbally and in writing. So, what is that name?
In the Hebrew language it is written יהוה. These four letters, called the Tetragrammaton, are read from right to left in Hebrew and can be represented in many modern languages as YHWH or JHVH. God’s name, represented by these four consonants, appears almost 7,000 times in the original “Old Testament,” or Hebrew Scriptures.
The name is a form of a Hebrew verb ha•wah´ (הוה), meaning “to become,” and actually signifies “He Causes to Become.” Thus, God’s name identifies him as the One who progressively fulfills his promises and unfailingly realizes his purposes. Only the true God could bear such a meaningful name.

German professor Gustav Friedrich Oehler discussed various pronunciations and concluded: “From this point onward I use the word Jehovah, because, as a matter of fact, this name has now become more naturalized in our vocabulary, and cannot be supplanted.”—Theologie des Alten Testaments (Theology of the Old Testament), second edition, published in 1882, page 143.

Similarly, in his Grammaire de l’hébreu biblique (Grammar of Biblical Hebrew), 1923 edition, in a footnote on page 49, Jesuit scholar Paul Joüon states: “In our translations, instead of the (hypothetical) form Yahweh, we have used the form Jéhovah . . . which is the conventional literary form used in French.”

The Jerusalem Bible, though preferring “Yahweh” to “Jehovah,” makes a strong point for using it instead of “Lord.” The preface of that translation states: “To say, ‘The Lord is God’ is surely a tautology [a needless repetition], as to say ‘Yahweh is God’ is not.”

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What about the Gospels and the rest of the Christian Greek Scriptures (the “New Testament”)? It has been reasoned that since God’s name appeared in the Septuagint, it would also have appeared in the earliest copies of these Scriptures—at least where the Septuagint was quoted. Thus, the name Jehovah appears more than 200 times in the New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures. Some have criticized this as unwarranted. However, there seems to be support for the New World Translation in an unlikely source: the Babylonian Talmud.
The first part of this Jewish religious work is entitled Shabbath (Sabbath) and contains an immense body of rules governing conduct on the Sabbath. In one section, there is a discussion as to whether it is proper to save Bible manuscripts from a fire on the Sabbath, and then the following passage appears: “It was stated in the text: The blank spaces [gil•yoh•nim´] and the Books of the Minim, we may not save them from a fire. R. Jose said: On weekdays one must cut out the Divine Names which they contain, hide them, and burn the rest. R. Tarfon said: May I bury my son if I would not burn them together with their Divine Names if they came to my hand.”—Translation by Rabbi Dr. H. Freedman.
Who were the mi•nim´? The word means “sectarians” and could refer to the Sadducees or the Samaritans. But according to Rabbi Dr. H. Freedman, in this passage it most likely refers to Jewish Christians. So, what were the gil•yoh•nim´, translated “blank spaces” according to Rabbi Dr. H. Freedman? There are two possible meanings. They could be the blank margins of a scroll or even blank scrolls. Or—in an ironic application of the word—they could be the writings of the mi•nim´, as if to say that these writings are as worthless as blank scrolls. In dictionaries this second meaning is given as “Gospels.” In harmony with this, the sentence that appears in the Talmud before the above-quoted portion reads: “The Books of Minim are like blank spaces [gil•yoh•nim´].”

Thus it is possible that the Gospels contained the Divine Name.

.

2007-09-16 17:44:18 · answer #6 · answered by TeeM 7 · 0 1

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