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as stated in Acts 20:28?

2007-09-16 09:42:13 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

4 answers

(Acts 20:28, NASB) the church of God which He purchased with His own blood.


Jehovah's Witnesses believe that God the Father "owned" his own Son Jesus, and allowed Jesus' sacrifice as Abraham allowed Isaac's.

(John 3:16, NASB) For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son


The Holy Spirit is not a person, and is certainly not a "flesh and blood" person. Clearly, the blood that saves is from Jesus, not the Holy Spirit. Jesus is the Son of God.

(1 John 1:7, NASB) the blood of Jesus His Son cleanses us from all sin.

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm

2007-09-17 01:52:16 · answer #1 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 2 0

The greek literally says:

"thru the blood of the own"

It does not say 'his own blood'.

The scriptures are very clear, It is thru the blood of his own Son.

1903 “with the blood of His own Son”
The Holy Bible in Modern English, by F. Fenton, London.

1950 “with the blood of his own [Son]”
New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, Brooklyn.

1966 “through the death of his own Son”
Today’s English Version, American Bible Society, New York.

On this point J. H. Moulton in A Grammar of New Testament Greek, Vol. 1 (Prolegomena), 1930 ed., p. 90, says: “Before leaving ἴδιος [i′di·os] something should be said about the use of ὁ ἴδιος [ho i′di·os] without a noun expressed. This occurs in Jn 111 131, Ac 423 2423. In the papyri we find the singular used thus as a term of endearment to near relations . . . . In Expos. VI. iii. 277 I ventured to cite this as a possible encouragement to those (including B. Weiss) who would translate Acts 2028 ‘the blood of one who was his own.’”

Alternately, in The New Testament in the Original Greek, by Westcott and Hort, Vol., 2, London, 1881, pp. 99, 100 of the Appendix, Hort stated: “it is by no means impossible that ΥΙΟΥ [hui·ou′, “of the Son”] dropped out after ΤΟΥΙΔΙΟΥ [tou i·di′ou, “of his own”] at some very early transcription affecting all existing documents. Its insertion leaves the whole passage free from difficulty of any kind.”

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2007-09-18 16:02:55 · answer #2 · answered by TeeM 7 · 2 0

1 John 1:7,says: “The blood of Jesus his [God's] Son cleanses us from all sin” (See also Revelation 1:5.)

As stated in John 3:16, did God send his only-begotten Son, or did he himself come as a man, so that we might have life? It was the blood, not of God, but of his Son that was poured out.

God's Active Force Purchased Us by reforming Jesus from a spirit being to a Man whose blood was the ransom for those who will become the Great Crowd. (Rev 7:9)

2007-09-17 13:46:53 · answer #3 · answered by keiichi 6 · 1 0

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2007-09-16 17:45:29 · answer #4 · answered by . 7 · 0 1

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