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16 answers

Yes..... Good... Point!

FULLY.... GOD... in the Perfect Sacrifice for SIN....

And FULLY.... MAN.... [ A Sinless Man ]... as the Passover... Sacrifice for SIN !

(1Corinthians 5:7) Therefore purge out the old leaven so that you may be a new lump, as you are unleavened. = For also = Christ = our Passover = is sacrificed for us.

Thanks, RR

2007-09-16 01:16:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The Qur’an says that Jesus was born of a virgin, that he spoke while he was still only a baby, that he healed the blind and the leper by God’s leave, and that he raised the dead by God’s leave.

What then is the significance of these miracles? First, the virgin birth. God demonstrates his power to create in every way. God created everyone we know from a man and a woman. But how about Adam, on whom be peace? God created him from neither a man nor a woman. And Eve from only a man, but not a woman. And, finally, to complete the picture, God created Jesus from a woman, but not a man.

What about the other miracles? These were to show that Jesus was not acting on his own behalf, but that he was backed by God. The Qur’an specifies that these miracles were performed by God’s leave. This may be compared to the Book of Acts in the Bible, chapter 2, verse 22, where it says that the miracles were done by God to show that he approved of Jesus. Also, note that Jesus himself is recorded in the Gospel of John to have said, “I can do nothing of my own authority” (5:30). The miracles, therefore, were done not by his own authority, but by God’s authority.

What did Jesus teach? The Qur’an tells us that Jesus came to teach the same basic message which was taught by previous prophets from God—that we must shun every false god and worship only the one true God. Jesus taught that he is the servant and messenger of that one true God, the God of Abraham. These Quranic teachings can be compared with the Bible ( Mark 10:18; Matthew 26:39; John 14:28, 17:3, and 20:17) where Jesus teaches that the one he worshipped is the only true God. See also Matthew 12:18; Acts 3:13, and 4:27 where we find that his disciples knew him as Servant of God.

2007-09-16 01:20:29 · answer #2 · answered by Fai M 1 · 0 1

Jesus did not have to reconcile God, God did not sin, man is the one that sin, now to say that Jesus is God, this answer is NO, Jesus was the son of God, God did not even dwell in Jesus until Jesus was 30 yrs. old & when John baptized him, then the spirit of God came to dwell in Jesus without measure.

2007-09-16 01:17:28 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

i assumed the argument in case you enable a guy marry a guy, then next you need to enable a guy marry an animal, or have marriages with extra useful than 2 companions. the 1st one is bogus as an animal is merely no longer able to assert furnish consent by ability of ability of asserting "I do". The latter has been component of Muslim and Mormon custom for generations, inspite of the easy actuality that it is outlawed indoors the Western international places at recent. inspite of the easy actuality that the phobia and jealousy in touch with a husband taking yet yet another, youthful, prettier significant diverse is a undertaking of many females. looking a thank you to make it criminal and usually utilized by ability of ability of according to risk a non secular community is a for this reason for confident a undertaking. that's a manipulatively worded argument to make women associate gay marriages with a sort to allow bigamous marriages and thereby play on their insecurities.

2016-11-15 09:00:35 · answer #4 · answered by gjokaj 4 · 0 0

Yes.

And he is.

469 The Church thus confesses that Jesus is inseparably true God and true man. He is truly the Son of God who, without ceasing to be God and Lord, became a man and our brother:

2007-09-16 02:26:08 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It seems that u know nothing about Christianity.Yes, He was both of them at the same time. He used to pray , to whome do u think? To God. Or in another words, to Himself, if to speak. It is to say that a part of God Who is omnipotent was incarnated.

Good Luck!

2007-09-16 01:28:07 · answer #6 · answered by cleopatra 4 · 0 0

No. A judges reconciles the plaintiff vs. the defendant but is not one or the other.

2007-09-16 01:55:16 · answer #7 · answered by Ahmad H 4 · 0 0

I thought God can do anything - why does he need to turn into a God-man to reconcile himself with his creations? So, no.

2007-09-16 01:29:41 · answer #8 · answered by Tom :: Athier than Thou 6 · 0 1

"What a piece of work is man! How noble in reason! how infinite in faculties! in form and moving, how express and admirable! in action how like an angel! in apprehension, how like a god! the beauty of the world! the paragon of animals! And yet, to me, what is this quintessence of dust? Man delights not me; no, nor woman neither, though by your smiling you seem to say so."

2007-09-16 01:16:45 · answer #9 · answered by hairypotto 6 · 0 0

Christ was God incarnate. Research the phrase "Son of God" and then reconsider your question.

2007-09-16 01:14:29 · answer #10 · answered by RIFF 5 · 1 0

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