B and V are both pronounced [b] at the beginning of a word of after [m] and a couple of other consonants - in other positions, both are pronounced [v] but with the lips almost touching rather than top teeth against bottom lip. That's why the Spanish [v] is called a 'bilabial fricative' as opposed to a 'labio-dental fricative' in English.
2007-09-15 22:19:42
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answer #1
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answered by JJ 7
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Yes, but it is softer, like start saying the b sound(lips together) and going into v sound.
Vamos [bva-mos]
My boyfriend is Hispanic and when he tries to say a word in English that begins with V it's kinda difficult 'cause he's used to pronouncing it bva, so I hold his top lip so that it doesn't touch the bottom lip. It's so funny. I don't do it public of course. :)
2007-09-15 23:34:03
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answer #2
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answered by Feli 2
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Yes it is true.
It's hard to tell what words start with b or v, they both sound the same, so when you're learning Spanish, you have to memorize how they are spelled.
2007-09-15 18:59:22
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answer #3
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answered by m○○♥m○○ 4
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you can pronounce A "v" WITH A B sound or a V sound
many mexicans use V sound when saying a V, In my country, we usually say V with a B sound though
I hear many mexican immgrants here use a V sound for V, it was the same way when I used to travel to Mexico
2007-09-15 19:34:42
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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yes, in classical Spanish language. though, in some regions of Spain and Latin America it can also be pronounced like "v"
2007-09-15 21:14:49
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answer #5
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answered by Natalie V 3
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yes. it's a sort of softer b though.
2007-09-15 19:22:45
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answer #6
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answered by zbam91 3
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You bet your sweet bagina!
2007-09-15 18:58:59
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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absolutely.
2007-09-15 19:03:14
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answer #8
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answered by Care 2
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yes. its weird.
2007-09-15 21:33:25
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answer #9
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answered by NicoleY. 5
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