2007-09-15 18:21:12 · 7 answers · asked by B 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Because The Holy Spirit is referred to in the masculine form in the Greek (παράκλητος), with the male gender definite article 'o and in two places has the masculine pronoun ending ος (John 14:26; 15:26; 16:7)
2007-09-15 18:33:20 · answer #1 · answered by cheir 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Where? Which verses?
The Last time I looked inEnglish or Greek there was no reference to the Spirit of Truth having ANY specific gender?
2007-09-16 01:36:18 · answer #2 · answered by JeeVee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Spirit of truth is the Holy Ghost, the Comforter whom Jesus sent when he ascended to heaven.
The Spirit of truth is the spirit of Jesus Christ.
John 14:16 And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;
17 Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.
John 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.
2007-09-16 01:38:18 · answer #3 · answered by hisgloryisgreat 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because the Spirit of Truth is Jesus Christ.
2007-09-16 01:40:02 · answer #4 · answered by Spoken4 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe to give emphasis that he is a man. In the KJV - the "He" gender is repeated several times.
13Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
14He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you.
15All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of mine, and shall shew it unto you.
Try to cross refer this verse to 1st John Chapter 4. The He, the Man is a Prophet of God.
1 John 4
1Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.
2007-09-16 04:15:32 · answer #5 · answered by jadid 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In countless references to God in Scripture, there is clearly a consistent pattern of His being referred to with masculine titles, nouns, and pronouns. While God is not a man, but is a Spirit, He chose a masculine form in order to reveal Himself to mankind. Likewise, Jesus Christ, who is constantly referred to with masculine titles, nouns, and pronouns, took a male form while He walked on the earth. The prophets of the Old Testament and the Apostles of the New Testament refer to both God and Jesus Christ with masculine names and titles. God chose to be revealed in this form in order for man to more easily grasp who God is. To assert that God chose a female form to be revealed to man is not consistent with the pattern established by Scripture. Again, had God chosen a feminine form, there would be more evidence in Scripture of that. That evidence simply does not exist. While God makes allowances in order to help mankind understand Him, it is important to not try to “force God into a box,” so to speak, by placing limitations on Him that are not appropriate to the nature of who He is.
2007-09-16 01:34:53 · answer #6 · answered by Freedom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
figure of speech
it sounded a bit disrespectful
personally i see it as ...... love
2007-09-16 01:29:57 · answer #7 · answered by walter e 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋