That's true. It would've been easy for them to manipulate it to fit exactly what they wanted it to say if they were as unscrupulous as the fundamentalists say.
But ... I do remember my dad telling me that when he was growing up in the 40s and 50s, the priests did tell them not to read the bible.
They stopped telling people that around Vatican II though. Thank God! I grew up reading the bible and asking adults questions about it all the time.
2007-09-14 09:45:44
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answer #1
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answered by Acorn 7
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Considering the historical fact that the bishops of the Catholic Church alone compiled the Bible and defined the Canon of Scripture once and for all time at the end of the 4th Century; and considering that they compiled this book for the sole use of the Catholic Church; what possible reason then could there be for the Catholic Church not to want its own people to read its own book! Absurd! Protestants say the Catholic Church discouraged reading the Bible because the Bible conflicts with its own teachings. Absurd! Can you imageine the bishops of the Catholic Church, gathered in Council at Carthage for the purpose of compiling a book for the use of their own Church, saying "well, this text conflicts with Catholic teaching, but what the heck, let's include it anyway"! The FIRST criterion for anything to be included in the Bible was absolute adherence to Catholic teaching. Protestants think their beliefs reflect biblical teaching, but of course it is only their own unauthorized personal interpretations of the Bible that are reflected in their hundreds of conflicting teachings. The fact is, the Bible itself reflects Catholic teaching - not the other way around - because the fullness of truth was taught by the Catholic Church before a word of the New Testament was written, and the biblical texts were chosen based on that pre-existing teaching.
2007-09-14 10:09:21
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answer #2
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answered by PaulCyp 7
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The Catholics DID block access to the Bible - this is true. And at the time, the Catholic church was the ONLY Christian church - it wasn't until the time of Martin Luther that the church started splitting up into the many denominations it has today. It wasn't until sometime in the middle of the last millenium that contraband copies of the Bible made their way to the people. At the time most of the people couldn't read anyway.
There is another problem with the Bible that you bring up: it HAS been changed - by transcription errors, by translation problems, and by no one having a clue as to what was in the original set of documents and what wasn't. The Bible is essentially a group of essays, and some that were considered for it but not used are in a book called the "Apocrypha". I think the Bible is probably the most misunderstood book in the world, but if you know the history behind it then it becomes a lot more interesting.
2007-09-14 09:55:48
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answer #3
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answered by Paul Hxyz 7
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First, the catholics did not "withold" the bible, they just used to hold that unschooled people tend to make all sorts of bad conclusions, so that it's better that only specially educated ministers read it and tell the correct stuff to the common people. This has changed a bit snce large scale education and reading skill have become facts of life.
Second, the Bible HAS been changed. It is known for fact that the text of the gospels was altered even beofe Constantine and the Nicean stuff... already to avoid misinterpretation and heresy...
This is not specific to the church of Rome... or why is it that protestants use a shortened version of the bible than Catholics? (missing some of the old testament stuff like the Ecclesiastic or the book of Tobit, as well as suppressing some chapters from Daniel and Esther)
EDIT. Voice of Reason, beside that tripe, you spouted, is there anything properly biblical to support your view of women beside stuff in some paulinian epistles?
2007-09-14 09:52:48
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answer #4
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answered by Svartalf 6
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To all the people that said the Catholic Church DID change the bible, I ask this: “Why did the Protestants keep this altered bible?”
It’s complete BS. Your question makes perfect sense and points to the contradictions of Protestantism (I, myself, a former protestant).
I would like to say thank you for pointing out the truth. Even though you’re an atheist, you have the open-mindedness to consider the honest truth, which is refreshing. Thank you, and God bless.
2007-09-16 16:46:05
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answer #5
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answered by Danny H 6
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The bible is still being changed. Atheists have come up with some very powerful arguments as to why it is a book of myth and superstition (vis Immanual Kant).
So, the churches answer has been to change th verses in the bible that atheists use. It does not seem to make the bible an infallible work.
And remember, for 1500 years it was a book that allowed priests unbelieveable poltical power. Early Christians who read the bible for themselves were burned at the stake for heresy (in the name of a loving god). These times were known as the dark ages (for an obvious reason). Clerics, especially the Vatican have been changing the bilble for millenia and it is still happening today.
2007-09-14 09:54:10
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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The church DID do that. But at the same time, the modern Fundies don't throw their parts away. It DID fit the Church's exact view. That view however, has changed. From bad to ridiculous.
2007-09-14 09:47:31
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answer #7
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answered by coralsnayk 3
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make sense out of this (ten commandments called Decalogue)
The Biblical view of women
The God of the Bible decrees that woman must submit to the dominance of man.
"The social and legal position of an Israelite wife was inferior to the position a wife occupied in the great countries round about... all the texts show that Israelites wanted mainly sons to perpetuate the family line and fortune, and to preserve the ancestral inheritance... A husband could divorce his wife; women on the other hand could not ask for divorce... the wife called her husband Ba'al or master; she also called him adon or lord; she addressed him, in fact, as a slave addressed his master or subject, his king. The Decalogue includes a man's wife among his possessions... all her life she remains a minor. The wife does not inherit from her husband, nor daughters from their father, except when there is no male heir. A vow made by a girl or married woman needs, to be valid, the consent of the father or husband and if this consent is withheld, the vow is null and void. A man had a right to sell his daughter. Women were excluded from the succession."
-Roland de Vaux, archaeologist and priest
2007-09-14 09:46:28
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answer #8
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answered by voice_of_reason 6
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Besides all that the common folk of those didn't read. That was for wealth and Royalty. The Church really could say what they wanted because the Bible was only heard not read by the people.
2007-09-14 09:48:38
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answer #9
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answered by Premaholic 7
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Hey voice of reason, if your source was the bible, it might help if you actually quoted the bible in your claim that women should be submissive to their husbands.
You're reading the scriptures too literally.
2007-09-14 09:50:15
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answer #10
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answered by samans442 4
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