Jesus is mere man not god Krishna is real god Krishna did more than prophecy can say anything about him
2007-09-18 09:05:56
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answer #1
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answered by garlic J 3
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You are way out, 1.Ask any Christian or even no Christians today who Immanual is, and I'll bet you will get lots that say Jesus. 2. Christ has two genelogies in the Bible, one shows that Joseph is descended from JDavid, the other is the lineage of Mary, and if you go way back to the first book in the Bible you will find the prophecy that it would be the seed of the woman, that would strike the head of the serpent. 3. Prophecies always had a double fulfilment in the Bible, if it was a long range prophecy, because the only way you could determine if a prophet was a true prophet of God would be if his prophecy came true. But when a Prophet was prophesying something hundreds of years down the road they would make a short term prophecy along with it, and if it did not come true they woulld not believe the long range one either. In the case you are talking about the baby to be born was the short term prophecy (and of course it doesn't say 'Jesus' in the OT, that is a misquote) and the Baby did died before the nations went into captivity.
2016-05-19 21:19:33
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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1) He is "God is with us". Christians have been telling that to people for centuries. It's not my fault you won't believe us.
2) He was descended from David through Mary. Joseph's line was the legal aspect of it. They are both lines leading to David, so I really don't know what your beef is.
3) The House of Israel to the North were never called Jews in the Bible. So it does not say that they were. You needed to be corrected since you seem so meticulous about genealogies. A simple but time consuming reading of the Bible will show you that both were taken.
There are Messianic prophecies which were not fulfilled. It wasn't time yet, the later half of Isaiah 61:2 evidenced in Luke 4 , it not fulfilled because Jesus is to return! It will play out in Zechariah 12 and Zechariah 14.
2007-09-14 09:50:50
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answer #3
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answered by Christian Sinner 7
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1) You have no idea what you are taliking about. The quote in Matthew 1 is the fulfillment of this propheay ..... Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
2) Again you are ignorant of thre Bible ....Mary was also a descendent of David.
3) Seems to say? You better read it again.... Isaiah 7:16 For before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest shall be forsaken of both her kings.
Jesus and only Jesus fulfilled hundreds of prophesies of the Messiah. You are grasping at straws to deny the one who died for you and all mankind. Come to Christ!
2007-09-14 09:40:53
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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1. Jesus is Immanuel. There I fulfilled the prophecy, and I was not the first. Nonetheless, the names are in fact semantically equivalent, for the Christian realizes that the "saviour" in the word "Jesus" could not exist had God not been "with us". Only God was a worthy sacrifice to save humanity from it's own sin.
2. He was born from the womb of a Jewish woman descended from David, thus linking him to David.
3. It's called the Diaspora.
2007-09-14 09:36:47
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answer #5
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answered by w2 6
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Christ Jesus or Lord Jesus is saying Jesus is God in the flesh.
If you had read the accounts in Matt 1:6, and Luke 3:31, you
would have learned that Matthew's account was using
Joseph's lineage and decended through David's son, Solomon; thus the term "begat" after each child issued. The
term begat means through the seed of the father. But in Luke's account, Luke 3:23, says Jesus "(as was supposed)"
the son of Joseph the son of Heli. This is Mary's lineage
"as supposed" letting us know each issue is "as supposed"
through Joseph. Matt 1:16, says that Joseph was begat by
Jacob while Luke 3:23, says Joseph was "son of" Heli. "Son of", means son-in-law of Heli. Luke 3:31, shows that
Jesus was decended through David's son, Nathan, rather
than Solomon as was Joseph. Mary's lineage was used,
because Jesus has no father after the flesh.
The Jews were cut-off from God's favor at the time of Jesus
and is well documented within Jesus own teaching. Once
Jesus told them, "If you will do this in a green tree, what will
you do in the dry?" They were cut-off as if a limb from a tree
and that limb dried up and lost all spiritual life. A day is as
a thousand years with God, but look at the fate of the Jews
since the time of Christ. God's favor was taken from them
and given to others and in God's sight, that is being destroyed, utterly.
2007-09-14 10:17:52
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answer #6
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answered by DISCIPLE 2
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Jesus was referred to by many names in the Bible. Jesus, Christ, the Messiah, the Word, the Son of God and Immanuel.
The mere definition of Immanuel obviously shows that Isaiah was indeed referring to Jesus. He was "God with Us", He was God when he walked the earth therefore the prophesy was fulfilled. Also, bear in mind that the Old Testament was written in Hebrew and the New Testament in Greek. Different words and names can have the same meaning and not be in contradiction.
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* Matthew gives us the legal and royal lineage through Joseph of Nazareth, his adoptive father. Jews allowed an adopted son to inherit his father’s estate. Being the adopted son of Joseph would have posed no impediment to Jesus’ right to the throne had the Jews been willing to accept him
* Luke provides us with the natural, blood lineage of Christ through the ancestors of Mary his mother
* Matthew stresses Jesus’ Abrahamic (Jewish) and his royal (Davidic) heritage (1:1).
* Luke stresses Jesus link with humanity and deity. Note that he begins with God, then Adam. Jesus , being the Son of God and the son of Mary, is God incarnate, i.e., God in human flesh. Matthew makes this same point in 1:23.
Therefore, the prophesy WAS fulfilled even though Joseph was his "adopted" father. Some people are baffled because Luke, while tracing the lineage through Mary, says, “Jesus...being the son (as was supposed) of Joseph, the son of Heli....” (Lk. 3:23). As R. A. Torrey explains, “Joseph’s name is introduced into this record in place of Mary’s; he being Mary’s husband. Heli was Joseph’s father-in-law; and so Joseph was called the son of Heli.” Technically Joseph was the son of Jacob (Matt. 1:16). He was the son-in-law of Heli. This sounds confusing to us, but not to the ancient Jews. “For a woman’s did not usually stand in the tables of genealogy. The term ‘son’ as used in such tables...had three meaning: (1) son by actual birth, (2) son-in-law, (3) son by creation, as in the case of Adam (Luke 3:38)”
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The land that was referred to in Isaiah 7:16 - were the lands of Syria and Israel and it was referring to the two kings, Pekah and Rezin who would be prevented from conquering the land, that they shall lose their own lands, and their lives too; which they did within two years after this time, being both slain by the king of Assyria.
2007-09-14 09:51:53
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answer #7
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answered by TG 4
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Your mistaken. Mary is descended from David. Therefore, Jesus is a descendant of David. Immanuel means God is with us. Prophecy fulfilled.
2007-09-14 09:35:50
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Prophecies to Identify the Messiah, Which Jesus Does Not Fulfill?
There's one in Isaiah (I forget the reference) which says 'His name shall be Emmanuel'. This is why I firmly believe the True Messiah is Manuel from John Cleese's Fawlty Towers, who would also appear to be a perfect agnostic, since he keeps saying 'I am Manuel. I am from Barcelona. I know nothing.'. And since he also doesn't exist, it looks like he can simultaneously please atheists, agnostics, and followers of the Bible - so halleluiah, a true miracle at last!
2007-09-14 09:40:41
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answer #9
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answered by tlhslobus 2
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Though I have no information about the other two, I do know that Mary's virginity and immaculate conception was added to the bible during the middle ages. Therefore, he could in fact be Joseph's son.
Apparently some people haven't hear about this. Hey, did you also know that the entire "He who is without sin should cast the first stone" story was added centuries down the road, too. I hate to shatter people's illusions, but the bible is not a unified or pristine text.
2007-09-14 09:33:31
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answer #10
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answered by Lao Pu 4
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