Christians: Should you take the words of the bible at their most obvious meaning?

Question

I see Christians claiming certain passages are metaphorical even though assuming a literal interpretation makes more sense. For example, in Exodus the most obvious reading implies that God thinks there are multiple gods but that you should worship him above the others. He gives no indication that the other gods are not real. Nowhere does he state that the other gods don't exist. Why would God be confusing on this point? It seems much more likely the writers meant this to be taken literally. If it was meant to be taken metaphorically it would have been more obvious.

"I am The Lord thy God, which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage. Thou shalt have no other gods before Me." (Exodus 20:2-3 KJV)

He does not state it in Exodus. Isaiah could have been written by a different author. Again, the most obvious conclusion is the writer of Exodus thought there were other actual gods.

Monte54que: But what gives you the impression that you are allowed to interpret it? It gives no indication of needing interpretation. Why wouldn't they say it as you did if that's what they meant? Is God trying to confuse people?

Answer 1

My interpretation of that scripture is God doesn't want Man to put anything in this world before Him, not alcohol, not money , not anything. Because everything here is temporary and God is eternal........common sense dictates the Bible must be interpreted. God did not write anything. Man wrote what they thought was being conveyed to them. Obviously, man made mistakes in the true meaning as Jesus came and taught the opposite.

Answer 2

Even though the word trinity is not in the bible The very first verse in the bible shows a plurality of God that no one can undue because the word God is used in a plural sense where it could have been used in a singular. The word God in Genesis 1:1 is Elohiym (Strong's Concordance Hebrew #430) which is plural for Elowahh (Strong's Concordance Hebrew #433) which means a deity or the deity. Genesis 1:1 Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV) 1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. This idea of plurality For our creator is not troublesome when you embrace Christianity's trinity Doctrine. In John 1:1 here we find more detail about the Identity of Elohiym, Here we have God in a plural sense also, yet he is one. John 1:1Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV) 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. In Isaiah 44:6 The LORD the king of Israel, and his redeemer The LORD of host make a proclamation in unity, notice the plurality in this passage: the LORD the king of Israel, AND his Redeemer the LORD of hosts. Isaiah 44:6Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV) 6 Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God. The Holy Spirit, the spirit of God (Elohiym) appears as early as Genesis 1:2. why didn't Moses write and God moved upon the face of the waters, It's because a distinction needed to be made for the sake of accuracy. Genesis 1:2Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV) 2 And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters. John MacArthur pointed out a particularly powerful passage in Matthew 3:16-17 where the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit appear simultaneously. Matthew 3:16-17Authorized (King James) Version (AKJV) 16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: 17 and lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. while the word trinity can't be found in the bible, the plural form of the word God was extensively used in the old testament Hebrew scriptures and the identity of Elohiym was fully revealed in the new testament by the unity of God in the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

Answer 3

It is a most easy thing to see that as far as the Israelites are concerned, they were chosen by God among all the people on the earth. Where they were (in Egypt) was conducive for them to be aware of what God refers to as "false-gods", that is, the false "gods" that the Egyptians worshipped. I don't see how you can presume to state what God was "thinking" when His statement is very clear in light of the influence the Israelites were exposed to.
If you go on (as so many don't) there are accounts of Israelites who still had gold and silver figurines of Egyptian deities among their personal possessions, and it was at these times that God throttled them after they found out who the offender was.
God is a jealous God which simply means that He is not going to split His glory with a piece of rock or wood that human imaginations ascribe deity-like qualities to. God was not acknowledging any other "gods"; He was simply warning the Israelites not to waste their time or reverance on pieces of wood or stone that could not speak or save them. You need to read Isaiah chapters 44 and 45 if you're going to be "balanced" in your views about such matters. In, I believe 45, God definitely states there are no other gods, there never were, and never will be.

Answer 4

from the Catechism Of The Catholic Church:

CCC 115 - According to an ancient tradition, one can distinguish between two senses of Scripture: the literal and the spiritual, the latter being subdivided into the allegorical, moral, and anagogical senses. The profound concordance of the four senses guarantees all its richness to the living reading of Scripture in the Church.

CCC 116 - The literal sense is the meaning conveyed by the words of Scripture and discovered by exegesis, following the rules of sound interpretation: "All other senses of Sacred Scripture are based on the literal."

CCC - 117
The spiritual sense. Thanks to the unity of God's plan, not only the text of Scripture but also the realities and events about which it speaks can be signs.
1. The allegorical sense. We can acquire a more profound understanding of events by recognizing their significance in Christ; thus the crossing of the Red Sea is a sign or type of Christ's victory and also of Christian Baptism.
2. The moral sense. The events reported in Scripture ought to lead us to act justly. As St. Paul says, they were written "for our instruction."
3. The anagogical sense (Greek: anagoge, "leading"). We can view realities and events in terms of their eternal significance, leading us toward our true homeland: thus the Church on earth is a sign of the heavenly Jerusalem.

http://www.usccb.org/catechism/text/pt1sect1chpt2.htm#art3

Answer 5

"Should you take the words of the bible at their most obvious meaning?"
Obvious to who? The "obvious" meaning to you isn't necessary the "obvious" meaning to someone living in the ancient near east to whom the words were originally written and spoken to.

"He gives no indication that the other gods are not real."
However, the bible makes quite clear that these false gods aren't real in such verses as Deuteronomy 4:39 and 32:39. There's no reason to keep repeating that they are each and every time the subject is brought up.

Answer 6

We Need to do as God Instructs Us: " Study to Show Thyself Approved Unto God A workman That Needeth Not To Be Ashamed, Rightly Dividing The Word Of TRUTH" 2 TIMOTHY 2:I5 (smile)

Answer 7

2 Kings 19:18
And have cast their gods into the fire: for they were no gods, but the work of men's hands, wood and stone: therefore they have destroyed them.
Jeremiah 2:11
Hath a nation changed their gods, which are yet no gods? but my people have changed their glory for that which doth not profit.

I can quote a lot more that show that the gods you are talking about at not gods just idols.. So what are you talking about ignoring the obvious meaning?... IHS Jim

Answer 8

The term "god" or "gods" doesn't refer to an actual GOD, as in Jehovah. It refers to all those things that we as humans set up as "gods".

A 'god' can be anything that humans worship.

Money.
Power.
Fame.
Physical looks.
The '57 Chevy in the driveway.
The spouse.
The house.
The kids.
The job.
Etc., etc., etc.....

Back in "the day" He was referring to the idols of all the different "gods" like baal, that people INVENTED. Today there are still a few of those (Buddah, Joseph Smith, insert any cult name here) but today it's more likely to be things than false gods.

Answer 9

An interesting point, indeed. Also we have to remember that the Scriptures are copies of copies of copies and in no way can we be sure what the original writers actually wrote.

Answer 10

You said:

"He gives no indication that the other gods are not real. Nowhere does he state that the other gods don't exist."


That is incorrect:

Isaiah 44:8

Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared [it]? ye [are] even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, [there is] no God; I know not [any].