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The Bible says "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder" (Matthew 19).

Then why is it that Protestants are allowed to remarry in their church? Is there any verse in the Bible saying so?
I need to understand.

This is a serious and respectul question. Thank you for serious and respectful answers.

2007-09-12 07:20:09 · 8 answers · asked by Belindita 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I'm not trying to create debate. I just would like to understand what part of the scriptures some protestants - and their pastors - base their new Christian marriage on.

2007-09-12 11:21:33 · update #1

8 answers

Protestants get around re-marriage the same way Catholics do... by questioning the validity of the marriage.

I am against all church weddings for a second marriage where the first ended in divorce except in the case of spousal abuse.

Bob L speaks with a forked tongue; Roman Catholics do the same thing...

2007-09-12 07:42:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

1 Corinthians 7 provides the answers you seek.
However, many Protestant churches determine there is a difference in marriages that were made prior to conversion to Christianity. Others still will go an extra measure and ask if God actually brought two people together in the spirit, or if the couple did it in the flesh.

The purpose of the Corinthian chapter is to answer questions the church had about marriage and divorce during times of heavy Christian persecution.

2007-09-12 07:28:27 · answer #2 · answered by Bob L 7 · 1 1

According to Jesus or in line with what individuals honestly DO? According to Jesus, person who divorced his spouse and marries one other commits adultery along with her. And a girl who marries a divorced guy additionally commits adultery. By Jesus' definition, there is a entire LOT of adulterers within the church buildings. Protestants divorce and remarry at all times, even one of the crucial "televangelists" that look to have disorders with best following the "phrase of God" that fits their comfort. And, sure, widows can remarry. Although the best way the Social Security legislation are screwed up, they're greater off to simply transfer in with their boyfriends if they're aged. Blessings for your Journey!

2016-09-05 11:33:51 · answer #3 · answered by sankar 4 · 0 0

Moses' concession to human sinfulness (the hardness of your hearts, Matthew 19:8) is repudiated by Jesus, and the original will of the Creator is reaffirmed against that concession. (Unless the marriage is unlawful): see the note on Matthew 5:31-32. There is some evidence suggesting that Jesus' absolute prohibition of divorce was paralleled in the Qumran community. Matthew removes Mark's setting of this verse as spoken to the disciples alone "in the house" (Mark 10:10) and also his extension of the divorce prohibition to the case of a woman's divorcing her husband (Matthew 10:12), probably because in Palestine, unlike the places where Roman and Greek law prevailed, the woman was not allowed to initiate the divorce.

There are other sayings of Jesus about divorce that prohibit it absolutely (see Mark 10:11-12; Luke 16:18; cf 1 Cor 7:10, 11b), and most scholars agree that they represent the stand of Jesus. Matthew's "exceptive clauses" are understood by some as a modification of the absolute prohibition. It seems, however, that the unlawfulness that Matthew gives as a reason why a marriage must be broken refers to a situation peculiar to his community: the violation of Mosaic law forbidding marriage between persons of certain blood and/or legal relationship (Lev 18:6-18). Marriages of that sort were regarded as incest (porneia), but some rabbis allowed Gentile converts to Judaism who had contracted such marriages to remain in them. Matthew's "exceptive clause" is against such permissiveness for Gentile converts to Christianity; the similar prohibition of porneia in Acts 15:20, 29. In this interpretation, the clause constitutes no exception to the absolute prohibition of divorce when the marriage is lawful.

2007-09-12 07:32:43 · answer #4 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 1 0

this isnt important when it comes to your salvation. this would have to do with arguing over doctrine. there are alot of verses in the bible that ppl argue over and say im right and your wrong. i could be wrong but this looks like a question that is trying to start some kind of debate bout the doctrine. if this is something you dont think is right then you shouldnt do it but rather then that, its not something you should worry bout.

2007-09-12 07:50:35 · answer #5 · answered by warrior*in*the*making 5 · 0 0

You know, I'm not sure if my mom's church, my former church, or my current church allow it or not. It'd be something worth looking into.

As far as I know, they don't (allow remarrying), unless the divorce was for the reason of abuse or adultery, but I'm not sure. I'll find out.

2007-09-12 07:38:28 · answer #6 · answered by The_Cricket: Thinking Pink! 7 · 0 0

That's a fair question....there is some justification in Scripture for divorce if there is unfaithfulness in the marriage. However, God does hate divorce, this is true.

Yet, I would ask you, isn't it a bigger sin for the Catholic church to deny communion to the guests of a Catholic wedding party who also are part of the body of Christ even though they are not Catholic? What justification is there for this. Isn't this doing what Paul preached against when He rebuked those baptizing in their own name instead of the name of Christ?

2007-09-12 07:28:39 · answer #7 · answered by whitehorse456 5 · 1 3

Nope.Christians that know God's Word do not follow any denomination or sect.They all have some doctrines that are unbiblical.Study long enough and you will see they are simply Jr.Catholics.

2007-09-12 07:26:24 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

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