2007-09-12 06:39:43 · 3 answers · asked by tonny 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Military
I'd hate to suggest that Edward I is somehow misguided in his ideas but the UK has only just finished paying the USA for her contribution in WW2. It was an absolutely massive sum, on top of allowing the US to dominate Caribbeans, and of course helping them with their dirty wars ever since 1945......
2007-09-12 07:00:43 · answer #1 · answered by jademonkey 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the British have re paid there, land lease in 2006 in full, a deal made at the start of the war ,2 years be for America got involved,America supplied some food and arms and 30 WWI1 destroyers, and Britain had to give a few naval bases up in return,and 60 years of payments and WW2 all most made bankrupt
2007-09-12 21:34:50 · answer #2 · answered by CHAMBO 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
cost of WWII
DIRECT COSTS. One Trillion dollars in military expenditures. ... missing Monetary cost $272,000,000,000 (conservative estimate) Property cost Of ...www.eisenhower.archives.gov/quick_links/military/WWII_cost.html - 54k - Cached
The ONLY country that ever repaid any amount to USA was Poland.
Poland also allowed any first born Pole of Polish immigrants to the US, to live there after the war, and they matched every US dollar, theryby doubling the value of the dollar to the one moving there.
Had an aunt, by marriage, who did this. Her savings and retirement was wotrh twice the amount.
2007-09-12 13:53:06 · answer #3 · answered by ed 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋