act of adultery, the very act?
Why didn't the man be brought before Jesus also?
And Jesus wrote in the sand & said, "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her.". They left.
Jesus asked her, "Woman, where are those thine accusers? Hath no man condemned thee?
She said, "No man, Lord.".
Then Jesus said, "Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more.".
Then Jesus said to them, "I AM the light of the world: He that followeth me shall not walk in darkness but shall have the light of life.".
2007-09-12
06:14:44
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6 answers
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asked by
t_a_m_i_l
6
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
John 8. And the scribes & Pharisees brought unto him a woman taken in adultery; & when they had set her in the midst, the say unto him, Master, this woman was taken in adultery, in the very act. Now Moses in the law commanded us, that such should be stoned: but what sayest thou?
I am asking Muslims, because in Islamic law, you are to kill the adulterous woman.
2007-09-12
06:17:40 ·
update #1
amirm, The law came through Moses. Grace & Truth came by Jesus Christ. To stone one for commiting adultery isn't mercy, grace or truth. Islam just goes back to the law of sin & death.
2007-09-12
06:55:42 ·
update #2
Sinsir Advisor, Jesus doesn't disagree or contradict with the Father or the Holy Spirit. Jesus is the Word of God. In 1Jn5 it is written that there are 3 that bare witness in heaven, the Father, Word & Holy Spirit. These 3 are 1. So? The Lord Jesus doesn't contradict with the Father or the Holy Spirit.
The law came by Moses, & Truth & Grace by Jesus Christ.
2007-09-13
04:30:04 ·
update #3
Muslims obviously don't care what Jesus said and we (Christians) don't care what they (Muslims) think about what Jesus did. However, I must tell you that this specific part in the life of Jesus shows how wonderful, compassionate and intelligent he was, because not only did he save the woman, but he also managed to influence this way the crowd.
And in the Bible, the same goes for Joseph, who saved Mary from a similar fate by marrying her, although she was pregnant.
I hope in the Islamic world, 2000 years after this, they can manage to find it in their heart to stop horribly punishing motherhood and freedom of women.
2007-09-12 06:25:59
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answer #1
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answered by cpinatsi 7
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I see everything for what it is. The woman Mary wasn't really liked in the scribe and Pharisees community. The same way they used their carnal minds to degrade and murder Jesus they were using their position to kill this woman. Today we have these Popes and Bishops sleeping with little kids, this just goes to show the belief system has always been a path to perfection, its man carnal self that corrupts.
The man wasn't brought before Jesus because some of those same men she had sinned with her were maybe scribes and Pharisees are some of their family members that had been their. Ask your self just like now if they were such sons of the light how did they know the secrets of the darkness.
How can a man be a Muslim and not be a Christian after all isn't a Muslim one who sub mitts to God and a Christian is he also excepts the teaching of Jesus. To sit and bring click and confusion between these two society, Fruits',Trees,etc. Is a tool of the Devil. Mr. King and Mr. X didn't get killed until they put aside their carnal vision and came together as 1. Conquer and divide is the oldest trick of the devil.
2007-09-12 13:55:57
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answer #2
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answered by Richard D 1
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I see your answer to the question about Jesus reflects that the man was not found guilty but only the woman.
Deut.22:
22 If a man be found lying with a woman married to an husband, then they shall both of them die, both the man that lay with the woman, and the woman: so shalt thou put away evil from Israel.
Edit
misread your answer sorry, my bad.
Edit to Sincere, Christ did agree with the righteousness of the law. Christ did forgive her anyway It is not any mans righteous judgment but judgment belongs to God.
All have sinned and all were not worthy of judging her.
Let he without sin cast the first stone is for all of us and all times. Are you without sin? Is any man without sin? Christ was without sin and did forgive her of her sins because he is God and because he came to fulfill the law and offer salvation to a sinful world.
This is the Biblical Christ not the Isa of Islam he is the Son of God and did come to this world to atone for sin.
All have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God.
The wages of sin is death.
It is the reason God came to the world in the form of man to overcome temptation as a man to remain perfect and to pay the penalty of death for all who will accept the atonement.
Jesus overcame sin and death wiht his resurrection it is through this act that sinful man is rejoined to a righteous God.
2007-09-12 13:24:46
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answer #3
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answered by djmantx 7
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Islam is the complete religion that follows from Adam, Abraham, Isa(not jesus), until Muhammad the last prophet...Quran is the completion from other Holy Book that had been given to Daud, Moses(torah), Isa (injil),..
in jesus's time,
a women who act an adultery will be cast by stones..
this is the law at that time..
THEN,
in Muhammad's time,
the sharia' law divided the punishment to a woman who act adultery with TWO types of punishment and TWO kind of woman..
1) unmarried woman
--if she act an adultery, the punishment will be beat 100 times.
2) married woman
-- if she act an adultery, the punishment will be CAST BY STONES until die..
you can see that Quran is the completion from the past Holy books....and there are more details..
2007-09-12 13:46:25
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answer #4
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answered by singularity 3
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Jesus' point was that hypocrisy is a bigger sin than adultery, not that adultery is not a sin or ought to be forgiven every single time. As one Muslim writer, Moiz Amjad, has pointed out, "At the time of widespread moral degeneration, it is not the law but the moral elevation that is sought by the prophets of God. It was in keeping with this principle that when a woman guilty of adultery was brought to Jesus (pbuh) and he was asked about her punishment, he declared that although her punishment, according to the Law was stoning to death, yet under the prevalent level of piety and chastity, no one had the right to administer the severe punishment."
If one goes by the interpretation that adultery is forgivable, why was it a crime in all of Christendom until recently?
There are many Christians who would tell you that the Biblical passage you have quoted is one the most misunderstood in Christianity:
Here is an example of questions it raises:
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Would Jesus make a mockery of God’s command by impossible requirements for the witnesses in such a case? Certainly not.
What did Jesus mean, then? He meant that such deceitful, hypocritical witnesses were not morally qualified to throw stones at the woman—though he did not forbid them to do such. He wanted to make them ashamed of their own sins, and He did.
Could the actual death penalty for adultery be carried out if the witnesses refused to throw the stones? No. “The hand of the witnesses shall be first upon him to put him to death, and afterward the hand of all the people” Deut. 17:7.
Was Jesus the proper legal judge or court or official to whom the Jews should bring offenders? No. The Sanhedrin, or Jewish high council, were the proper ones.
Jesus said, “Neither do I condemn thee.” Does this mean that Jesus does not condemn the sin of adultery? Was Jesus contradicting other Scripture in 1 Cor. 6:9,10 and Gal. 5:19-21?
In John 8:1-11 was Jesus teaching that it is sinful for us to “judge” one another in any manner? Was He contradicting the righteous, commanded “judging” of John 7:24 and 1 Cor. 5:1-13; 6:1-4?
Does Jesus’ example in John 8:1-11 mean that it is wrong for the church ever to mark, turn away from, or put away evildoers and false teachers? Would Jesus be guilty of contradicting the Holy Spirit in Matt. 18:15-18; 1 Cor. 5th, 6th, ch.; Rom. 16:17,18; 2 Thess. 3; 2 John 9-11?
Was Jesus in John 8:1-11 contradicting the “reprove, rebuke” of 2 Tim. 4:2 and Luke 17:3,4?
It is perversion of God’s Word and serious doctrinal error to interpret John 8:1-11 in contradiction to many plain passages of Scripture.
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http://homepage.mac.com/closerlookbooks/John8.html
Islamic theology also leaves out the possibility of complete forgiveness despite a life full of sin, for one single act may wipe away all sins. Prophet Muhammad (s.a.w) gave example of a prostitute who saw a dog dying of thirst and
out of pity she lowered her sock or shoe in a nearby well and quenched the dog's thirst. And for this act alone, God was so pleased that He forgave all her sins. On the other hand, examples are given of a seemingly pious man who would end up in hell for an act so evil that all his other good deeds wouldn't be able to save him.
2007-09-12 15:17:04
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answer #5
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answered by Sincere-Advisor 6
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Mohamed would also have been put to death.That suggests that the 'blind does lead the blind'.We have to be careful who we follow.
2007-09-12 16:45:26
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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