English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Immaculate conception aside, what would be so wrong about her having sex with her husband? Do you believe that this is just a myth?

2007-09-12 02:36:58 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Is it so wrong of me to question this idea?

2007-09-12 02:43:36 · update #1

10 answers

From our modern sensibility, it seems like there would be nothing wrong with Mary and Joseph having a sexual relationship after Jesus was born. But Mary and Joseph were not 21st century Christian or secularist people. They were 1st century Jews, so you have to look at the situation like a 1st Century Jews.

To do this, you need to study up on the Old Testament and see where God's presence is physical and how people react to it. You look at Moses having to veil his face, you look at the elaborate purification that Jewish priests went through just to enter the Most Holy Place in the tabernacle once a year, you look at how just *touching* the Ark of the Covenant could kill a person who was not purified.

For Mary and Joseph, knowing that the Holy Spirit of God had come upon her and knowing that God's only begotten Son was living inside her, her womb had become the New Ark of the Covenant. Her womb had become the new Most Holy Place. I know that *we* don't think of her that way in our modern ideas, but that's how *they* would have thought as 1st Century Jews.

For that reason, Joseph, being a godly man, surely would have voluntarily maintained a commitment to celibacy throughout his marriage to Mary.

There is some misinformation stated above. The Bible NEVER says that Mary and Joseph had sexual relations, even thought he Bible does say that other couples did, (David and Bathsheba for one). Without a verse that says Mary and Joseph had sex, it's only an ASSUMPTION that Mary and Joseph had sex, and if you look at the situation for 1st Century Jews, it would be a ridiculous assumption. Joseph wasn't going to have sex with God's bride!

Some people throw out the verse that says Joseph didn't lay with Mary until Jesus was born, but that doesn't work. That sentence is only proof that Joseph wasn't Jesus' biological father. "Until" means "up to the point of" but it doesn't mean that things automatically changed afterwards. It doesn't mean, "up to the point of but not after." Case in point -- the Bible says in 2 Sam 6:23, "Michale the daughter of Saul had no children until the day of her death." This doesn't mean she had children after her death, does it? Of course not.

Another thing people throw out as "proof" that Mary and Joseph had more kids is the "firstborn" title given to Jesus. First of all, only children are also first children. They're not second or middle or last-born children are they? An only child can only be a firstborn. Second, you have to think like a first century Jew again -- the firstborn son had a great responsibility to his family, so this is a title that was given to all male children who were born first to a couple, even if they had only sisters born after them and even if they had no siblings at all.

Finally, we have the brothers of Jesus. Their births are NOT recorded in Scripture. The Bible never says that Mary gave birth to any one of them. And when Jesus was "lost" at age 12 and Mary and Joseph hurried back on a dangerous journey to Jerusalem and then spent a whole day looking for Jesus, they had no younger kids in tow. Without birth control, how could they have possibly gone 12 years without having another baby if they were having sex? They should have at least had one nursing baby with them, possibly a toddler, too, even if they'd left the 10, 8, 6 and 4 year olds with relatives.

Obviously, these brothers were NOT younger than Jesus, because if they would have been, either their births would have been recorded OR Joseph would have returned to Jerusalem alone and left Mary and the little kids in the safety of the caravan when Jesus was "lost" OR they would have had the younger kids with them.

Which means, probably, that the brothers were all older than Jesus -- Joseph's children from a previous marriage that left him widowed, as the most ancient belief has always stated (Eastern Orthodox Christian teaching). Either that, or they were adopted/foster kids -- women died in childbirth rather frequently before 1800, so it's entirely possible that Joseph and Mary were taking in nephews or other relatives to raise when the kids were orphaned.

Regardless, though, the BIBLE does not say that Mary and Joseph had sex and the BIBLE does not say that Mary had any child other than Jesus, so people who say so are only speculating. And I think if you're going to speculate about what Mary and Joseph did, you have to look at it as 1st Century Jews instead of modern people. Furthermore, this theory that Mary and Joseph had sex & kids is fairly modern. Luther, Wesley and the other reformers believed in Mary's perpetual virginity, too.

2007-09-12 04:03:25 · answer #1 · answered by sparki777 7 · 1 0

The Bible speaks of Jesus' brothers and his sisters -- unless, I missed something, it takes intercourse for a couple to have children, and Mary thus had it with her husband Joseph.

The scriptures are there for all to read in the Gospels. The case of Jesus is explained and known by all Christians. That some do not accept the Bible's own testimony about this smacks of Islam's rejection of the Biblical characters it proclaims belief in.

2007-09-12 04:28:40 · answer #2 · answered by Fuzzy 7 · 0 1

You do know what Celibate (Celibacy) means right? It is derived from that Latin cælebs, which literally translates to "unmarried," and means to remain single. Do you mean Sexually Abstinent and Chaste? The Answer is yes, she remained a Virgin her entire life.

2016-05-17 21:27:26 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Mary did not remain celibate her whole life. Mary had another child. Jesus had a brother....
Jesus had to come from a virgin because God is pure. So he cause a (pure) virgin to become pregnant. Nothing's wrong with natural conception (for God himself created it)
It;s just His son Jesus, had to come from the Holy Spirit. Not from human descent. He did not come from human origin.
That's one reason why the Word says, we are saved by grace...and not by (our own) works...so that no-one should boast.
If Jesus came from Joseph's seed (his literal seed)
who would be boasting of their having part in his existence?
No...he came from God and God alone. He was born of the Holy spirit. He is the first child of God.

And of course...all children come from God...as He is the author of life. But Jesus came directly from the spirit of God, because He served a different purpose....
He came to do God's will...and offer salvation for all of mankind.

2007-09-12 02:51:48 · answer #4 · answered by BLI 5 · 1 1

The Bible says she had natural children, so she did not remain celibate.

2007-09-12 06:29:39 · answer #5 · answered by bigvol662004 6 · 0 0

Mary only remained a virgin until Jesus was born, Joseph did not touch Mary while she carried Jesus, But after Jesus was born then they had sexual relationships, Because they had children of their own.

2007-09-12 02:46:55 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Another one of those things the Catholic Church made up; the Bible clearly shows that Jesus had brothers and @ least 2 sisters.

2007-09-12 03:55:09 · answer #7 · answered by DwayneWayne 4 · 0 1

No..hahahaha....Jewish law at that time period, Joesph could have divorced her....

there were other brothers and sisters.....

2007-09-12 03:56:42 · answer #8 · answered by coffee_pot12 7 · 0 1

Well considering Jesus had brothers, no I don't think she did lol

2007-09-12 02:43:05 · answer #9 · answered by ~Heathen Princess~ 7 · 4 1

Ummm didn't she have a bunch of kids?

2007-09-12 02:43:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

fedest.com, questions and answers