a) When I burn a bull on the altar as a sacrifice, I know it creates a pleasing odor for the Lord (Lev 1:9). The problem is my neighbors. They claim the odor is not pleasing to them. Should I smite them?
b) I would like to sell my daughter into slavery, as sanctioned in Exodus 21:7. In this day and age, what do you think would be a fair price for her?
c) I know that I am allowed no contact with a woman while she is in her period of menstrual uncleanliness (Lev 15:19-24). The problem is, how do I tell? I have tried asking, but most women take offense.
d) Lev. 25:44 states that I may indeed possess slaves, both male and female, provided they are purchased from neighboring nations. A friend of mine claims that this applies to Mexicans, but not Canadians. Who can clarify? Why can’t I own Canadians?
e) I have a neighbor who insists on working on the Sabbath. Exodus 35:2 clearly states he should be put to death. Am I morally obligated to kill him myself?
2007-09-10 09:50:13 · 9 answers · asked by briman232 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Being gay is a sin, and I know this because Leviticus is the literal word of GOD.
When someone tries to defend the homosexual lifestyle, for example, I simply remind him that Leviticus 18:22 clearly states it to be an abomination. End of debate.
2007-09-10 10:25:00 · update #1
a. Just tell them it's a barbeque, and they probably won't mind.
b. Uh oh, you're misunderstanding one thing here. You can only indenture your daughter. You cannot sell her as an 'owned' slave.
c. Women are funny like that!
d. I use my Canadian slaves for the most menial and degrading tasks ONLY!
e. Please! We are modern people, not savages! In this kinder, gentler age, I think simply knee-capping him would probably be alright.
Hope that helped........
2007-09-16 23:56:27 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wow! I read your question about 5 years before Yahoo Answers was even invented!
So now. What has any of this to do with Christianity? The earliest Christian canons didn't even include the book of Leviticus. It was only officially recognized as a part of the Bible in the 7th century AD.
2007-09-10 16:58:59 · answer #2 · answered by NONAME 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
You should be asking the Jews this question. As Christians we are no longer under Mosaic Law, since Jesus fullfilled it.
2007-09-10 16:58:11 · answer #3 · answered by Starjumper the R&S Cow 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
that's odd, Christians are not under Mosaic law, so the 10 commandments don't stand anymore? Or are we picking and choosing?
2007-09-10 17:01:56 · answer #4 · answered by numbnuts222 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Gentile believers were never under Levitcal laws. These laws were given by God...to Moses...for the Hebrews.
Not that I think you really are asking because you want to know.
2007-09-10 16:57:47 · answer #5 · answered by Esther 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Christians are no longer subject to the Mosaic Law. Looks like you are on your own.
2007-09-10 16:58:37 · answer #6 · answered by Sal D 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
They will tell you it doesn't apply. But wasn't it the same god as the new testament who enacted those laws?
2007-09-10 17:01:01 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
God made these laws unnecessary by having his son as the ultimate sacrifice. also some of the things you mentioned are illegal nowadays so stop wasting our time.
2007-09-10 17:14:30 · answer #8 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
How lovingly mocking.Care to try another(better) question?
2007-09-10 16:57:26 · answer #9 · answered by Derek B 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋