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Why does there seem to be a contradiction between verses 18 and 23?

Galatians 5:18 But if you be led of the Spirit, you are not under the law. 19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, jealousies, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies, 21 Contentions, murders, drunkenness, revelings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God. 22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, long-suffering, gentleness, goodness, faith, 23 Meekness, temperance: against such there is no law.

2007-09-10 04:07:06 · 25 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Edit: Is there no contadiction between convential Christian belief that in v:18 they are not under the Law and V:23 where we are commanded by Paul to live our lives according to things against which there is no law?

2007-09-10 04:34:16 · update #1

25 answers

Actually they both seem to be saying the same thing. "Not under the law" (v.18), "there is no law" (v.23).

Only a person whose actions are not in conformity with the law feels the force of the law. A law abiding citizen need not fear the law. It's the same in our spiritual life. Those who are led by the Spirit live a life that is in conformity to the law of God. They are not in violation. Hence the law has no effect on them. That is why they are said to be "not under the law"(v.18). To them it is as if "there is no law" (v.23).

It does not, however, mean that such a person is free from the obligation of the law as some would like to believe.

2007-09-10 04:25:59 · answer #1 · answered by Andy Roberts 5 · 1 0

Paul was writting to a church that was mostly Gentile. These were people who had never followed the Mosaic law. They came to Christ under Paul's preaching. Paul never required that any of them convert to Judism, be curcumcised, or follow the OT rituals of sacrifices, holy days, offerings, etc.

Once Paul had left, some Jews came in after him requiring that the Christians begin to follow of all the Jewish laws. When Paul heard about that, he sent them this letter to dispute that teaching.

As you read through the letter, Paul give several reasons for not following the Mosaic rituals. Why the sacrifices and the holy days were not needed. The last issue he raises is the moral law. If we do not have to obey the sacrifices and rituals, does that mean we do not have to obey things like the 10 commandments?

In verse 18, Paul says that we do NOT have to obey those moral laws. The reason is because the things that are "sin" should be obvious to anyone (the works of the flesh are "manifest" - meaning easy seen). He listed several of them in the next three verses. He then remainds that Galatians that while we are not under a "law" about those things, that does not mean we can do them. Those who do such things will not inherit the Kingdom of God.

Paul then list the things that should be manifesting in a Christians life, the fruits of the Spirit. These are the things that Christ came to bring. While the Mosaic law showed us what NOT to do, Jesus shows us what TO DO, and gives us the power to do them.

To those who still want to cling to the law, Paul reminds them that there is no law against to all these right things. So rather then be hung up on what nor to do - why not just put the emphesis on what you SHOULD do?

There is no contradiction between saying that Christians do not have to follow the Mosaic Law and stating that the good things Christians should be doing are not against that law.

2007-09-10 11:28:25 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 0

There is no contradiction. 18 refers to the fact that those who live for God are not of the world. They follow an order higher than those laws made by man. If you translate the word against to mean "restricting" then against could also be taken to mean "above" or in more power than.
Now the verse would read: But if you be led of the spirit, you are not under the law...But the fruit of the spirit is love, joy, peace...above such there is no law.
God's law is the highest law.

2007-09-10 11:13:47 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I don't see the contradiction, please explain...

The "law" in verse 18 is the rules and prescriptions in Jewish law...the actions and behaviors that men are instructed to follow to achieve righteousness. Verse 18 says that if you are led of the Spirit, that you are not obligated to follow those laws.

Earlier in verses 16 and 17, Paul says, "So I say, live by the Spirit, and you will not gratify the desires of the sinful nature. For the sinful nature desires what is contrary to the Spirit, and the Spirit what is contrary to the sinful nature.

In verses 19 through 21, Paul explains the works of the "sinful nature"...those that manifest such behaviors are not "living by the Spirit". Yes, many of these behaviors are covered by the Jewish law, but the essential difference is whether the motivation is internal or external. The law is external...we follow that law through our own will. Conversely, the Spirit is internal...if we are living in the Spirit, it, not the law, will cause us to shun the works of the flesh (the "sinful nature").

Verses 22 and 23 describe the fruits (works) of the Spirit...love, joy, peace, etc..., these are the works of the "Spiritual nature". A person living in the Spirit will manifest these behaviors and, as the end of verse 23 tells us "against such there is no law". In other words, nothing on the list of fruits is forbidden by any part of the old Jewish law (or any other system of law as far as I know).

The essential message of the 5th chapter is that through Jesus, we are free. We are released from the obligations of the old law and free to be led by the Spirit to manifest its fruits. We aren't required to follow the letter of the law and no laws stop us from following the Spirit...in short, freedom from the law.

Perhaps this was a different way for Paul to communicate a message he communicated in other letters. If a person chooses to follow the old Jewish "law" as a way to achieve righteousness, then he or she is obligated to follow all of it if he or she wants to actually achieve righteousness. Nothing in this verse (or anywhere else) suggests that the law can't lead to righteousness...only that it is an all or nothing proposition. Jesus offered another way...allow the Spirit to dwell within ourselves and the Spirit will guide us to righteousness without the need for any external laws.

2007-09-10 11:43:28 · answer #4 · answered by KAL 7 · 0 1

Here's my take on in:

The beginning of Gal on the spirit talks about living in the spirit (Gal 5: 16So I say, live by the Spirit, and you will not gratify the desires of the sinful nature. 17For the sinful nature desires what is contrary to the Spirit, and the Spirit what is contrary to the sinful nature. They are in conflict with each other, so that you do not do what you want.)

So, there are laws against killing people, for example, but if you are living with and led by the spirit, you are producing love, joy peace etc, which there is no law against such things...So you don't have to worry about following the law when you are lead by the spirit, because you are naturally going to be living a just, 'innocent' life.

2007-09-10 11:34:48 · answer #5 · answered by ♫O Praise Him♫ 5 · 0 0

What I think this means is, if you truly believe in the Bible and follow the teachings of Jesus and his apostles, then you are not under the law because you've moved beyond the law. If someone is dedicated to living a good life, and really means it, then that person doesn't need laws to govern him or her since laws are put in place to warn the people who WOULD break them. It's sort of like giving a child a rule like "don't eat too much sugar;" the rule is there for the ones who wouldn't follow it in the first place, but the kids who DO follow the rule don't really NEED the rule in the first place since they would do the right thing regardless of whether a rule existed or not.

As for the second part, it means that there's no reason why you shouldn't be a nice person--there's no law against kindness!

2007-09-10 11:17:47 · answer #6 · answered by silver40596 2 · 0 1

There is no contradiction. In fact, 23 seems to follow 18 as a reinforcement of the same point.

Let us re-state it.
18 - If the Spirit leads you, you are NOT UNDER the law. That means you are above it, and the law cannot be held against you.

22 & 23 - Fruits of the Spirit, which come from you being lead by the Spirit...there is no law against them. Thus, there is no law that can be held against you when you do these.

I'd say this is ~complete~ agreement.

2007-09-10 11:13:39 · answer #7 · answered by Jay 6 · 3 2

There is no contradiction. Only misunderstanding with those who do not comprehend the Spirit.

There is no law against the fruit of the Spirit. The nature of law is to address those who are not led by the Spirit of God. These are those described as unrighteous, and Paul points out that the law was made for them, and not the righteous, and true Christians are defined as righteous.

.

2007-09-10 11:13:12 · answer #8 · answered by Hogie 7 · 3 3

If you are doing good deeds, there is no law that can condemn you. If you are led by the Holy Spirit you can not do wrong things. Love does no harm to its neighbor.

2007-09-10 11:21:29 · answer #9 · answered by georsh50 3 · 0 0

the whole book of Galatians is where Paul rages against those apostles that said gentiles have to be circumcised. almost every one gets caught up in single verses. to see what he is saying. read the whole book a few times

2007-09-11 19:05:24 · answer #10 · answered by Bob d 5 · 1 0

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