If Christ really died for our sins and he did this freely and willingly because his dad told him to do this.
Then Why did he say on the cross?
Why hast thou forsaken me?
Why did he say this if he did it freely?
Once again I'm not being rude I would like to know.
2007-09-10 01:49:51 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
There's a lot of contradiction in the bible. This is just one of many. If you are going to study those works in depth, you just have to accept that the bible was written by well over 100 different authors and has been edited repeatedly. That's why you have to take it as a collection if interesting stories you can learn from. If you take it too seriously, you will just cause problems.
2007-09-10 01:54:28 · answer #1 · answered by Kelson 2 · 2⤊ 4⤋
At the point that He recieved all of man's sins upon Himself, He became repellant to God and the Holy Spirit left Him. You understand that Jesus, as God, left His place of Divinity to become a man...that means that He suffered all that man could suffer and death is that wage for that sin. Since God cannot die nor contend with sin, Jesus had to be forsaken until He conquered death and rose again to take His place as God once again. Many people don't understand that....christians even. Love in Christ, ~J~
2007-09-10 08:58:52 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Father God would not look on sin and as sin was poured out on the Son's flesh the Son knew that the Father turned His head away from Him and God had to forsake Him at that moment. The Son had never been separated from the Father, but at that moment they were separate. Jesus took the sins of the whole world upon Himself and the Father turned His head away. Jesus' eyes were always, always on the Father and He saw Him turn away. Jesus did this for you and me. The Father planned it and the Son being the Father could only carry it out sinless. No other person, but Jesus, could handle this job of Salvation for me and for you.
2007-09-10 09:03:16 · answer #3 · answered by Jeancommunicates 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He said it because he was quoting a Psalm.(Specifically Psalm 22:1) But He is referring to this whole chapter and stated this for those watching to say that He knew this was His fate and had accepted it as such. He said it so that others would know He was the fulfillment of this prophecy. Psalm 22:31 "Future generations will come and proclaim [God’s] righteousness to people not yet born, for He has accomplished it."
2007-09-10 09:06:49 · answer #4 · answered by cutiepatutie 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not a christian, so this is just guesswork based on my interpretation of what I read when I was trying to find my path.
Jesus would have had to be connected with god in a BIG way to be able to pull off the miracles and have the wisdom he showed. It could be that while he was stuck up there, he felt that connection sever. Jesus was destined for a trip to the underworld (where god, being part of the "overworld" couldn't go), so that connection had to be let go.
I think that when he felt that "Oneness with God" feeling leave him, he was discouraged and cried out to his father.
2007-09-10 09:04:42 · answer #5 · answered by Raven Winterstide 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Christ took all the sins of the World which includes my sins and your sins and so when the father looked at him and his sinfull state he left him . That is why he says Why hast thou forsaken me?
2007-09-10 08:58:17 · answer #6 · answered by Antony 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He said that because sin was laid upon him and God could not bare to look at him because God hates sin, yes even though he created it. Now what I am about to say I am not biblicaly sure about this but, when Jesus said that I beleive that God laid ALL the sin in the world past, present, and future on him and Jesus saw that his father could not look at him. So Jesus felt alone and that his father rejected him. But like I said that is just a view but thank you for asking I will find out if I am right.
2007-09-10 08:56:31 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
He experienced for the first time to be separated / not in communion with His Father, when the sins of all the world, past present, and future were upon Him. It was His painful reaction to that moment.
2007-09-10 10:11:02 · answer #8 · answered by Darth Eugene Vader 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God forsaking His Son on the cross is very significant because Christ had to die for the sins of mankind, not physically, but spiritually. He had to experience what it was to be without the Father in oder to experience eternal death, not just physical death. It is theologically quite complicated, but vey necessary to the completion of the atonement process.
2007-09-10 08:56:32 · answer #9 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 6⤊ 0⤋
in might in part be the difference between knowing something in your head and experiencing the grief emotionally as you go through it
it also is pointing to the Messianic prophesy in Psalm 22 "my God My God why have you forsaken Me" which promised vindication in the end... a people yet born will see.. he has done it
2007-09-10 08:56:37 · answer #10 · answered by whirlingmerc 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋