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2007-09-08 13:12:41 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Depends what country you are in...
US 16 fluid ounces in a pint - so 80/16 = 5 pints
UK 20 fluid ounces in a pint - so 80/20 = 4 pints
2007-09-08 13:18:32 · answer #1 · answered by piscesgirl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
8 ounces equal a cup. 80 ounces = 10 cups. 2 cups = 1 pint, so 10 cups equal 5 pints. 80 ounces = 5 pints.
2007-09-08 20:18:14 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since there are 16 ounces to a pint, 80 divided by 16 equals 5 pints.
Whoa! I don't usually begin to answer a question if there are already correct answers there. It always surprises me when my answer gets posted and I find there are several answers before mine! Looks like we all post at pretty much the same time. Guess I'll have to begin refreshing before submitting my answer! LOL!
2007-09-08 20:20:44 · answer #3 · answered by Lori D 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the substance. 1 cup is 8 oz of water, so 1 pint is 16 oz. Therefore 80 oz = 5 pints.
2007-09-08 20:17:44 · answer #4 · answered by asic design gal 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are 16 ounces in a pint.
So divide 16 into 80, it goes 5 times.
Won't you be glad when US goes Metric?
2007-09-08 20:17:45 · answer #5 · answered by Robert S 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
80 ounce [US, liquid] = 5 pint [US, liquid]
2007-09-08 20:18:51 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋