What exactly is a "semite"? Was it a tribe or a race in the Arab regions a long time ago? And if semites were arabs and jews, why do jews use the word "anti-semitic" to the exclusion of arabs?
2007-09-08 10:14:39 · 9 answers · asked by Mike 4 in Social Science ➔ Anthropology
Yes, it would only relate to Jews.
Its one of those quirks of semantics that the dictionary definition of "Anti Semitism" means "Jew hatred" to the exclusion of "Arab hatred" even though the term Semite would include all Semitic peoples which includes both Arabs and Jews.
For the record, the term "anti semitism" was coined in the 19th century by a non Jew to refer to "Jew hatred" and thus that is how it came to be.
2007-09-08 16:00:15 · answer #1 · answered by BMCR 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Actually, "semitic" does not relate to genetic lineage, it refers to a linguistic similarity. Modern Arabic and Hebrew are related to eachother in that each "descended" from the same parent language, although the actual history of each language has been distinct since they split, probably several thousand years ago. The Semitic languages share several things, including being written from right to left, several unique phonemes, and many similar words (eg. Hebrew "Beth" and Arabic "Bayt" both basically mean "home"). The most probable origin of the Semitic Languages was in South Arabia where deciphered inscriptions from the civilizations of Sabea and Hadramaut (and others) are in the Semitic family tree. Also the Nabateans of the world famous city of Petra (ca. 100 BC -300 AD) spoke a Semitic language closely related to modern Arabic. However, languages have nothing to do with biological populations, and many groups speak the languages of their biologically distinct neighbors, trade partners, conquerors, etc. So, to answer your question: Just because Jewish people speak a Semitic landquage, and Arabic Moslems also speak a Semitic language, it does not mean that all Arabs, and all Hebrews are biologically related.
2007-09-08 16:26:56 · answer #2 · answered by Isaac U 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The term improve into coined via an antisemitic German to make the hatred of Jews sound a lot greater powerful than purely asserting "Jew hatred". This utilization improve into suitable for the nineteenth century, via fact the conventional ecu improve into greater possibly to bump right into a Jew extremely than an Arab. Anti-semitism is precise, considering that present day technology has shown that a huge number of Jews do look semitic. on an identical time as the term can recommend Arab, it has traditionally been reserved for Jews. Edit: Houda, have faith it or no longer there is DNA info meaning that Ashkenazis, for the main area, are descendant of the Israelites, and not the Khazars such as you recommend. i'm going to confess, I do have a sprint Khazari blood in me, yet it fairly is purely prevalent via fact my grandfather have been given a DNA try. He additionally found out that he has the Cohen gene, that's the comparable in all Jews (Ashkenazi, Sephardi, and Mizrahi) who've it. This additionally potential that Ashkenazim are semitic. i think I additionally should point out out that Judaism is a semitic faith, so the term is often acceptable in that context, and that it fairly does not count what race you're, anti-semitism is anti-semitism. additionally, i bypass to point that there are somewhat some Mizrahi and Sephardi who will argue against your assertion that Ashkenazi entirely run the state of Israel. Rami: final time I checked, Jacob had twelve sons. How do you get 9?
2016-10-04 05:30:34 · answer #3 · answered by mangini 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Semites include arabs and hebrews. It was probably a tribe as most middle eastern cultures seem built around tribal connections.
Jews don't seem to think arabs can be subjected to anti-semitism, but that may be the result of denying an unwanted family member.
2007-09-08 10:25:04 · answer #4 · answered by BAL 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Semites include Arabs, but since more people use it to refer to Jews, the actual meaning of the phrase "anti-semitic" has been forgotten.
2007-09-08 10:22:54 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Te accusation 'anti Semite' is as obscure as ' non believer, infidel, atheist, can't really defend against it. great for justifying defense
2007-09-08 10:24:09 · answer #6 · answered by lab90210 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The only real way to tell the difference is to cut them open and examine entrails. You won't find much use for them after that but you will have your answer.
2007-09-09 08:21:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
the jews think they are special, but they are no different than the current iraqi's, cuz thats the area they migrated from
2007-09-09 06:08:55 · answer #8 · answered by boygreek13 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
it should refer to both, but, over time, it has come to refer to Jewish people only.
words and their usage change over time.
2007-09-08 10:21:45 · answer #9 · answered by nickipettis 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋