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If so, please explain and/or give an example.

2007-09-08 05:34:03 · 3 answers · asked by la la la 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

No, it is not possible.

2007-09-08 05:39:28 · answer #1 · answered by thomasoa 5 · 0 0

No, by definition an irrational number is a real number that is not rational.

2007-09-08 12:40:33 · answer #2 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0 0

No, they are disjoint number sets by definition. I.e. if a number is irrational it means that it is not rational, and vice versa.

2007-09-08 12:49:55 · answer #3 · answered by Bazz 4 · 0 0

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