--SIMPLY BECAUSE he practiced his perverted Christianity, and and in the beginning of his perversion he either murdered or had murdered several of his immediate family.
--This included his wife & Son, because they would not convert to his so called christianity!
--SO WITH such roots in falseness & perversion many things would take place, like the crusades & the ever popular INQUISITION that lasted over 600 years!
2007-09-07 14:54:59
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answer #1
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answered by THA 5
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Actually, if you actually read the histories, he didn't. He was the emperor of a multi-faith empire. He did not seek to destroy sects because, contrary to myth, he did not make Christianity the state religion. He did end its illegality and he returned three hundred years of seized property. He called Nicaea to make peace not to kill people.
Millions didn't die. That is also myth. You should read an actual history of the Inquisition and crusades. You should also read a history of the Protestant Inquisition too. It apparently didn't have the restraint the Catholic one did.
I am an atheist, but you really need to read history instead of repeating things pastors tell you. Check your facts.
2007-09-07 14:50:39
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answer #2
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answered by OPM 7
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It was politically useful to him. The army had been infiltrated by Christians and he of course need them. His mother was a christian, but he was always pretty lukewarm in his 'faith'. (Like not getting baptized until you're on your death bed is a big sign.)
I think he just wanted another tool to control. Though he didn't outlaw other religions (that came 50 years later) he went out of his way to make Christianity the dominant religion at the expense of the Pagans.
Personally, I think he wanted to limit the power of the pagan priests over the populace. Emperors tend to be jealous of other people with power.
2007-09-07 14:09:52
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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He was a politician, he wanted to stop the fall of his empire, more and more Christians (violent ones) were taking over, and he decided to outlaw Paganism (which resulted in many more pointless deaths)
It's not very clear that he did convert, but he certainly made it easier for them to rule Rome.
2007-09-07 14:11:42
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answer #4
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answered by irishinvenice 3
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It is likely false that he became a Christian, as the story of his conversion is known to be made up (i.e. visions of the glowing cross). However, it is known that he used Roman Catholicism as a means for political unification. This is sufficient to explain most questions.
2007-09-07 14:08:36
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answer #5
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answered by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6
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