ROMANS 1:27
Paul points out in the new Testament that "the natural use" of a woman is to provide men with S*E*X?????
look it up if you can and you don't know it by now!
explain to me what this stands for in a book that is giving you an ispiration in your daily life and of your ever so loving God ! of course some of you will tell me I dont understand this right ! and if this is the case as well -then please explain!
2007-09-07 10:27:39 · 77 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
hey diet girl why dont you pick up a bible like I did!
2007-09-07 10:37:40 · update #1
chris cross -you crack me up!
2007-09-07 10:39:36 · update #2
Oh c'mon, you know the "Good Book" is misogynistic to a fault.
But ACTUALLY...
That verse, properly translated, admonishes sex that is uncharacteristic and unnatural for the person in question. It doesn't condemn all homosexual intimacy as "unnatural", it simply tells us not to have sexual relations that are "uncharacteristic" of the kind of person we are. For example, if we're heterosexual, we shouldn't engage in same sex intimacy because it would be against our own personal nature. And vice versa, if we're homosexual, we shouldn't engage in opposite sex intimacy because it would be against our own personal nature.
2007-09-07 10:32:52 · answer #1 · answered by ZER0 C00L ••AM••VT•• 7 · 13⤊ 15⤋
What i believe is that the Bible was written by man.. not God. And everyone knows this. True some people believe that the King James Bible that they have sitting on thier night stand is the word of God and that it is true from cover to cover. But here is the thing. Can you read Hebrew... more then likely not. Therefore you Bible is not the original text. It has been translated a billion times, and modified a million times!
So what do I think this sentence means... the man that "translated" what God said to writing.. (whether it be the one who originally wrote it.. the person who translated it into english, the person that modiefied it to fit thier perposes... whomever it was thought that sex it the true duty of woman.
I don't now about you... but my God cherishes the female form in the same why my God cherishes man. If not more... for only we have the true blessing of giving birth.
2007-09-07 10:38:33 · answer #2 · answered by pdsmonki0809 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
I looked up your scripture in NIV, New English, KJV, and an interlinear Greek - English New Testament. I am an atheist and I don't believe a word of any of it. I am a retired troubleshooter (electrical, not biblical!) and so am methodical, plodding, and try to be thorough. I can see how you arrived at your conclusion, but I must say that I think things other than than the reading of the scripture colored your interpretation. I personally feel, in this case, that the scripture is only defining a symptom of an overall problem. That is my opinion and with it and a dollar you can quite likely get a cup of coffee almost anywhere.
I see I am last in line as usual. Takes time to look and read and think. Maybe in this case last will be best. Good Luck to you. B.Hound
2007-09-07 10:54:13 · answer #3 · answered by B.Hound 4 · 4⤊ 1⤋
NiV translates it as "natural relations"
At first glance, I thought this was a question pointing out how the New Testament endorses "stay behind me, don't talk unless asked" servitude as seen in the Middle East.
However, a closer look at the two verses (can't look at one without the others, otherwise, very easy to loose the context), shows this is more in line with "what constitutes natural sexual relations.
Sorry if anyone disagrees with this, but it does appear Scripture has a clear demarcation between natural and unnatural.
2007-09-07 10:56:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
I think there is no use for anyone to get into a verbal slugfest with you. You don't want an explanation or an interpretation, all you want is an argument. I have never seen the like of people who will scour the Bible for hours, looking for any phrase they can, to wave around and rant over. You probably study the Bible much more than a lot of Christians do! Too bad you do not understand what you study. Besides, my interpretation and your interpretation are two vastly different things. I don't mind that you are an atheist, and I am not going out of my way to try to change your mind. Why are you so hot to try and change mine?
2007-09-07 10:38:47 · answer #5 · answered by claudiacake 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Slave of 12 gods, you are totally right in your understanding of the sex slave role of women in the Bible.
Actually the 2nd part of verse 26 is
"women ("thelus" nurturer or nipple provider, from the word "thelazo" meaning nipple, suckle)
exchanged ("metallasso" traded)
the natural function ("chresis" sexual intercourse specifically job and duty oriented sexual intercourse from the Greek "chriomal" providing what is needed).
for the unnatural"
so in today's terms
The verse reads that women traded the role as family nurturer and care giver for other interests and also stopped putting out for their husbands which was thier job to perform.
Consequently in verse 27 the men turned gay.
I love people that read the KJV and think they actually read the Bible.
The greek words Paul used "chresis" exactly describe that the women abandoned a litterally translated "sexual job requirement and duty".
Many who answered this question should take the time to look it up in a greek dictionary or Greek interliniary bible at thier local Bible book store. I suggest buying the book.
Paul didn't write in english and in my opinion KJV is a poor translation.
2007-09-08 07:18:11 · answer #6 · answered by whitiepossum 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure what translation of the Bible you have (NSRV, NIV, KJV), but mine doesn't suggest that a woman is made only to have sex with a man, which it sounds like you are implying yours does. What Paul is telling the Romans is that when this group of people let themselves fall into sin they ceased having sex with their natural partners, i.e. men started having relations with men and women with women. The more I think about it the less I feel like it says that a woman's role/duty/purpose is to have sex with men. Like I said, he's saying that sin changes you into something "unnatural" and giving examples. Now, whether or not you think homosexual activity is unnatural, thats up to you. But to Paul it was.
2007-09-07 10:40:37 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Are you reading the other passages around it. I am not sure as far as just taking that part and making a determination.
1:26 says for this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature. I think it is saying that in nature the womans main purpose is to procreate not sex you are assuming it means sex then it moves into 1:27 where it says men are lusting for one another I think this passage is about the desire for some to be homosexual and leaving their natural use of pro creating.
2007-09-07 10:40:37 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
Perhaps it was taken out of context, it most likely meant that both a male and a female are needed to create life on earth. I do, however disagree strongly with the notion that women are little better than recepticles for a man's seed. That is very degrading and has no place in a civilized society.
2007-09-07 10:35:08 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Most of the translations that I have don't use the word sex but I found one that did.
It reads in Romans 1: 27 And the men , instead of having a normal. sex relationship with the women, burned with the lust for each other, men doing shameful things with other men and. as a result; getting paid within their own souls with the penalty they so richly deserved. Please read all of chapter 1.
For that matter read all of Romans. Don't overlook the fact that the part you were reading had to do with morals
2007-09-07 11:04:22 · answer #10 · answered by Pepsi 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
This is what the King James Version Bible says in Roman 1:26-27 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
The woman in Genesis 1 is described as a help-mate for the man. That means that she is here to assist the man not to be his "SEX SLAVE" but to be in all things his' helper and to be joined until death as his' wife when they are so inclined. GOD made a male and female to be able to reproduce but also to be happily joined as man and wife. I do NOT believe that the woman is for the sole reason of SEX as you describe it. Paul wrote many things about the man and his wife in those is the fact that a man is to love his' wife as CHRIST loved the CHURCH. That love was shown in HIS' Sacrificing HIMSELF for our sins. Have a wonderful weekend.
PS... I like your new Avatar (She is very pretty)!
Thanks,
Eds
.
2007-09-07 10:33:38 · answer #11 · answered by Eds 7 · 4⤊ 1⤋