Why does the bible teach us that Jesus is God, if Jesus knew Abraham, who said he was I am who am. Sounds like

Question

God to me. the trinity is 3 persons in one all being equal to the other, all divine all powerful. Jesus is the Lord God. Get it right people.

Answer 1

True indeed. It is very evident in the Bible and it distinguished between the Trinity who are yet one.

Verses of Scripture explicitly stating the Father's Deity:

“Labour not for the meat which perisheth, but for that meat which endureth unto everlasting life, which the Son of man shall give unto you: for him hath God the Father sealed.” (John 6:27)


“And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” (Philippians 2:11)


“Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.” (I Peter 1:2)


These verses are only a few in the New Testament that refer to the Person of God the Father. Many times, the generic term “God” or “Lord” is used. Specifically, God “the Father” is a term used to denote the specific Person of the Father. This reveals that the Father is a distinct Person. He is not the Son, nor is He the Spirit, yet they three are one (I John 5:7). His title alone tells of His Deity.


Verses revealing the Father's relationship to the Son:

“Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.” (Matthew 7:21)


“My Father which is in heaven” is distinct from the Son, Who is the Door into heaven itself (John 10:9). The only Way to the Father is through the Son (John 14:6). However, Jesus says not everyone that says “Lord” will enter heaven unless they do the will of the Father. What is the will of the Father? People must enter into heaven His way. Hebrews 10:9-10 says that God's will was that through Jesus' death we may be sanctified. II Peter 3:9 says that God's will is that all should come to repentance. Therefore, the will of the Father is that people will come to Him through Jesus Christ alone. It is amazing how, as distinct Persons, both the Father and the Son are needed for salvation, yet ultimately He is one God. One cannot have the Son without the Father or vice versa (I John 2:23; 5:12,20; II John 1:9).


“Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my Father which is in heaven. But whosoever shall deny me before men, him will I also deny before my Father which is in heaven.” (Matthew 10:32-33)




“Confess” means to agree with. When someone confesses Christ, they agree with God about who he is - a sinner - and Who Christ is. God is so holy and far removed from sin that He cannot justify a sinner by confessing him. In His great mercy, however, God became a man so that He may be the Daysman, or Mediator, between God and man (Job 9:33; I Timothy 2:5). Because of Who He is and what He has done, only the Lord Jesus has the capability to confess repentant sinners to His Father. God Himself became our Mediator!

Answer 2

Did you not read Col 1:15,16? It says Jesus was the firstborn of all creation. That means God created Jesus first and then Jesus helped God to creat other things (the rest of the angels and the universe). That's why Jesus was called the master worker in heaven. --Proverbs 8:22-30.

Please, if Jesus is God himself, why did he need to creat himself? If Jesus is God, he should have all the authority right? Why was Jesus given all authority in Matt 28:18? I truly tell you, it is because Jesus is not the God himself, but a Son of God, that's why God gave him "all the authority" in heaven and on earth as stated in Matt. 28:18.

Answer 3

If Jesus is God then why can't he choose who will be at his side in heaven? (Matt20:23) If he is God how come he knows not when he'll return (Matt 24:36) If Jesus is God then why will he turn over his Kingdom to God and subject himself to God? (1 Corinthians 15:25-28) If Jesus is God then why is God over him? (1 Corinthians 11:3)
And if Jesus is God...why oh why is his father Greater? (John 14:28) and the best for last...If Jesus is God why does he have a God? (John 20:17) & (Revelations 3:12)

Just wondering

Answer 4

I think Jesus was just like one of us but given knowledge and power to teach the rest of us.

Answer 5

Jesus is Jehovah. Heavenly Father is Elohim. Two separate beings.

Answer 6

Jesus is a God. His father is also a God, the one to worship. Jesus did not pray to himself or some strange part of himself. He prayed to his Father.

"Let US make man in OUR image"

John 10
31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

Answer 7

You are right....... Jesus did say that Abraham was glad to his day, God sat down and ate with Abraham.... and that means if Abraham saw Jesus , then he saw God...... yes......... amen........ Go in peace...... God bless

Answer 8

If you are misquoting Ex 3:14, Yahweh was talking to Moses, and he said, 'I shall become' not I am.

See the literal verse by verse in this link,

Don't forget to read vs 15 also.

http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/OTpdf/exo3.pdf

If you are misquoting John 8:58, please read this commentary:

"I am" in John's Gospel
The Expository Times, 1996, page 302 by Kenneth Mckay.

"The verb 'to be' is used differently, in what is presumably its basic meaning of 'be in existence', in John 8:58: prin Abraam genesthai ego eimi, which would be most naturally translated 'I have been in existence since before Abraham was born', if it were not for the obsession with the simple words 'I am'. If we take the Greek words in their natural meaning, as we surely should, the claim to have been in existence for so long is in itself a staggering one, quite enough to provoke the crowd's violent reaction."

On the translating of EGO EIMI at John 8:58 by Dr Jason BeDuhn:

"John 8:58. The traditional translation "Before Abraham was, I am" is slavishly faithful to the literal meaning of the Greek ("Before Abraham came to be, I am"). The result is ungrammatical English. We cannot mix our tenses in such a way. The reason for this ugly rendering is the accident that, in English, the idiomatic "I am" sounds what God says about himself in the Hebrew/Old Testament. This is sheer coincidence. Jesus is not employing a divine title here. He is merely claiming that he existed before Abraham and, of course, he still exists whereas Abraham is dead. There is nothing wrong with the Greek, but we need to take account of the Greek idiom being employed and render the meaning into proper English. The NWT moves a step closer, but doesn't quite get there, because it still sounds awkward. But at least they were trying to convey exactly what the Greek idiom means. It's not that easy to come up with a phrase that works.

===

"To describe a state continuing up to the present, Greek uses the present tense...where the English uses the prefect; cf. viii.58; xvi.9.-italics ours.

It is of interest that he then says that the English perfect here might not capture everything in the Greek. This is exactly what Furuli is on about in his analysis of the three ways that "ego eimi" has been translated:

1)"I was."
2)"I am"
3)"I have been."

To quote from Furuli :

"The truth is, there is no way to translate this Greek passage into English in a strictly literal way, because Greek is an aspectual language and English is not. ...In comparing the above translations we can see that ["I am"]..does not fulfill any of the four requirements[of grammaticality, intelligibilty, faithful conveyance of the message, addition of elements] while ["I was"] and ["I have been"] fulfill three out of the four. My personal preference is for ["I have been"]....as it does not distort the message as ["I was"] does."(The Role of Theology and Bias in Bible Translation, pp.237, 238)

Furuli then points out McKays translation of this passage as, "I have been in existence since before Abraham was born." as an improvement over all three.



The quote is Jesus is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

(Philippians 2:11) . . .that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.

Please get it right.

Does Jesus stop being God when He hands over everything to his God and Father?

1 Cor 15: 24 then comes the end, when He hands over the kingdom to the God and Father, when He has abolished all rule and all authority and power.

27For HE HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET But when He says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him.

28When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all.



.

Answer 9

( Certainly they disbelieve who say: Surely, Allah-- He is the Messiah, son of Marium. Say: Who then could control anything as against Allah when He wished to destroy the Messiah son of Marium and his mother and all those on the earth? And Allah's is the kingdom of the heavens and the earth and what is between them; He creates what He pleases; and Allah has power over all things)

Answer 10

Jesus commanded his followers to obey the laws of Moses and to await his return when HE would establish HIS church. You are not a follower of Jesus but a followers of Paul.
GET IT RIGHT PEOPLE!!