is medical informed consent legaly walid if was obtained by the patient even though he had not met or spoken to the surgeon that performed surgery on him?It was obtained by so called hair transplant consultant who is not physician has no medical background.The patient met the doctor first time 10 minutes before surgery when the doctor had so called consultation,one day after consent was signed.The patient was mislead and conned into hair transplant surgery that was scheduled before patient was examined and had a chance to wage the pros and cons of surgery.
2007-09-07 04:17:40 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Medicine
A patient can certainly consent to treatment in the provider's absense. That's not the issue here.
The issue is, was consent fraudulently obtained? Was the procedure misrepresented, or the provider's ability to perform the procedure? If the answer is yes, then consent may not be valid. Otherwise, it probably is valid.
2007-09-07 04:27:59 · answer #1 · answered by El Jefe 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
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2016-05-30 19:43:25 · answer #2 · answered by Steve 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Axillary block IS a sort of community anesthesia, so i'm uncertain why you say that the chart replaced into in errors. Anesthesia that knocks you out is "widely used anesthesia" and while they only numb component to your physique, like an arm, it extremely is "community anesthesia." Regardless, somebody could desire to have sat down with you and defined precisely what went incorrect, and why. you appear to be a clever individual who basically desires to comprehend what you went by way of. while some thing is going incorrect with a affected person I continuously attempt to describe to them what exceeded off. regrettably, many medical doctors are basically overworked, and the time to correctly look into and clarify the errors can take an hour or greater out of your time table. Many medical doctors are additionally decrease than the flawed impact that discussing an errors with a affected person will lead them to greater probable to sue. It easily makes them much less probable to sue, through fact maximum human beings basically choose tips. while they are able to't get an sufficient clarification, then they sue. i'm hoping you may get a passable answer.
2016-10-18 05:42:41 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the doctor performing the procedure doesn't necessarily have to be the one to obtain consent. nurses or other ancillary staff can legally obtain consent.
2007-09-08 05:18:31 · answer #4 · answered by belfus 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
unless you signed while under the influence of some substance and/or were not of sound mind....legally binding.
See a lawyer for laws in your state.
2007-09-07 04:43:21 · answer #5 · answered by lilygateau 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋