The Gospel narratives frequently refer to the Old Testament, Often to cite a prophecy which is being, or about to be fulfilled. What is the reason for these references?
2007-09-06 08:31:23 · 6 answers · asked by cetinnovations 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
i think its self explanatory ... its showing whats going on ..
2007-09-06 08:39:02 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it is proof that things prophesied from the Old Testament, WILL and DOES come true and is recorded in the New Testament, (at least the things we are supposed to do or know). It is proof that it was not just a popular "man made saying", either a man in the New Test. or A man of recent days.
2007-09-06 16:06:53 · answer #2 · answered by Dixie 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the old testament is the new testament concealed(hidden) so the new testament reveals the old testament.....so when a prophecy is being fulfilled it normally was in the old testament but just confirmed in the new testament.....Not all of the prophecies have been fulfilled that are in the old testament (which is also in the new testament) so when they are they refer back to the old testament which is the written source of the prophecies.
2007-09-06 15:54:47 · answer #3 · answered by Jesus is Wuts up^ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Proof of validity.
In Jesus case, every time he did something that fulfilled an OT prophecy, the gospel writers included that to lend proof to his Messiahship (don't know if that's really a word).
2007-09-06 16:54:34 · answer #4 · answered by DwayneWayne 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The NT cannot stand on its own....it must be validated by the OT because the NT claims that Jesus is the Jewish Messiah.
Problem: Jesus fulfilled exactly none of the messianic prophesies.
2007-09-06 15:38:55 · answer #5 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To refer to the prophesy that is being or has been fulfilled obviously.
2007-09-06 15:38:16 · answer #6 · answered by djmantx 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋