I'm trying to review french grammar rules for direct object pronouns, but I don't understand what my textbook means. It says that past participles agree with PRECEDING direct objects, but in the example the direct object is not preceding, and it still agrees. I'm so confused!! Here is what it says:
"If there is a preceding direct object and there is a past participle, the past participle must agree with the object:
Ils ont vendu sa bibliotheque ---> Ils l'ont vendue. "
(emphasizing the l' and the e at the end of vendue).
Can anyone tell me what I am missing? Thank you so much!
2007-09-06
08:22:54
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2 answers
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asked by
aldakemina
2
in
Society & Culture
➔ Languages
I thought maybe it meant preceding direct object PRONOUN also, so perhaps the text made a mistake? I just wanted to check before I assumed the book was wrong...
2007-09-06
08:45:48 ·
update #1